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05 Aug 2012, 05:43
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What explains the (somewhat drastic) differences in the section vs. total percentiles?
For example, if I score a Q46(71%)/V37(81%) that totals out to a 680(85%). Why would two lower percentile rankings combine to form a higher one? Does this mean that people tend to have very large inconsistencies in their section scores (e.g. Q51/V25 or Q35/V51) on a per test basis?
Also, has anyone compiled a reasonably accurate list of the various section score combinations that would result in total scores above 700? I could probably analyze others' results and figure it out on my own, but I'd rather not reinvent the wheel.
Thank you for your time.
For example, if I score a Q46(71%)/V37(81%) that totals out to a 680(85%). Why would two lower percentile rankings combine to form a higher one? Does this mean that people tend to have very large inconsistencies in their section scores (e.g. Q51/V25 or Q35/V51) on a per test basis?
Also, has anyone compiled a reasonably accurate list of the various section score combinations that would result in total scores above 700? I could probably analyze others' results and figure it out on my own, but I'd rather not reinvent the wheel.
Thank you for your time.
05 Aug 2012, 18:09
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JD1010
I can't tell you exactly why things worked out that way on the GMAT, but it's certainly possible to imagine such a circumstance.
Let's say that 50% of people score a 20 quant, and 50% of people score a 50 quant. Then, let's suppose that everyone who got a 20 quant got a 50 verbal, and vice versa.
Now, you take the test, and get 40Q/40V
You are 50th %ile in each section--dead center. But you're 99.9th %ile overall! You got 80 points, and everyone else got a 70!
Naturally, that example is grossly oversimplified. But weird percentile things can happen when different scores are lumped together. There is no reason to think the discrepancies in your percentiles are that surprising!
Regards,
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