The graph indicates the results of a survey of written material from

Question

https://gmatclub.com/forum/download/file.php?id=72460 The graph indicates the results of a survey of written material from three areas in early modern England. The graph shows the percent of use of you when either you or ye would be appropriate. Select the option from each drop-down menu that creates the statement that most accurately reflects the information provided. The area of early modern England that was first to favor the use of you over ye was GRAPH_1_PLACEHOLDER . In the surveyed writings from the area of the North between 1520 and 1559, you constituted GRAPH_2_PLACEHOLDER of the instances in which either you or ye would have been appropriate. ID: 100356 2016-08-21_11-11-43.jpg 2016-08-21_11-11-43.jpg

linden84 · Accepted Answer

London and 20%:

1) You are looking for the first area in which the use of the word "you" exceeds 50% (as that would mean you > ye)

2) X coordinate of the North Graph given by "1520 to 1559", corresponding y coordinate is 20%

gvij2017 · Answer

For 1st,
Shouldn't be north as north curve is above London curve at start of curve?
Please explain. how you deduced London over North.

Sajjad1994 · Answer

Official Explanation

The graph shows that all three areas greatly favored ye over you until 1520–1559. During that period, London began to favor you, since the percent use of you shown in the graph corresponding to London during that time period is slightly greater than 50 percent, as indicated by the height of the black circle for 1520–1559. The percents shown in the graph for that time period in the North and in East Anglia were each less than 50 percent. So the graph indicates that the first area of modern England that favored the use of you over ye was London.

The correct answer is London.

The percent use of you shown in the graph corresponding to the area of the North between 1520 and 1559 is approximately 20 percent, as indicated by the height of the white square for 1520–1559. As the text indicates, this is the percent of the surveyed writings from the area of the North between 1520 and 1559 in which you was used when either you or ye would be appropriate.

The correct answer is 20%.

Deepakdc · Answer

The graph indicates the results of a survey of written material from three areas in early modern England. The graph shows the percent of use of you when either you or ye would be appropriate. Select the option from each drop-down menu that creates the statement that most accurately reflects the information provided.

The area of early modern England that was first to favor the use of you over ye was  : The graph shows % of 'you' used in early modern England. The area first to favor 'you' will be the area that crossed 50% usage 1st . Clearly, London achieved that in 1520-99. Hence, answer is London. 
.
 In the surveyed writings from the area of the North between 1520 and 1559, you constituted   of the instances in which either you or ye would have been appropriate.  : Clear cut answer from the graph. You can infer that North area is at 20% in 1520-99 period.

GMATCoachBen · Answer

Short video solution here (1:30):

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=ZpzDK5HH0Zg

egmat · Answer

Here is a  detailed video solution  for this interesting question.
See how this question can be solved in the test environment using " Owning the Dataset " approach.

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=WfanFY8JdZ4

Let us know if you have any questions.

Natansha · Answer

Hi  KarishmaB

Could you please clarify the first ques here, the first to favour should be North, which is on the left most side, why are we taking the first to favour as the country where the percentage reached 50% first? Thank you in advance

KarishmaB · Answer

Out of 100 instances in which you/ye should be used, when would we say that we favor 'you' over 'ye'? When we are using 'you' in more than 50% of the instances. Which area started using 'you' in more than 50% of the instances first? London in 1520 to 1559.

Natansha · Answer

I have a doubt in below's reasoning. Favoring something doesn't have to mean that something is used or preferred over 50%, we could slowly start to use something more and that could imply a favour towards it, and if we are asked when it happened first, it should be North. For eg if i preferred chocolate over cookies 10 out of 10 times but now it has changed to 8 out of 10, that could mean i am slowly starting to favour cookies, which could or couldn't increase over time.

cheshire · Answer

If you have two hands and you use one more than the other you are favoring that one hand. Same in this case. If you can only eat chocolate or cookies and you prefer chocolate 8/10 times you're still favoring chocolate. It doesn't matter that your are starting to like cookies, as you still favor chocolate over cookies. The 50% threshold is very important here as it's the ONLY turning point.

NITISHMISHRA · Answer

Hi,

The first part of the question asks " The area of early modern England that was first to favor the use of you over ye " -------> so why can't we consider NORTH as the answer, because if we see the graph of North, it is above all. Doesn't it indicate first to favor it.

Please explain this aspect ?? what is wrong here in assumption.

Thanks.

Bunuel · Answer

https://gmatclub.com/forum/download/file.php?id=85857 It seems that you ignored the discussion above, because a couple of very detailed solutions are already given, as well as posts addressing this exact doubt. But here it is again. “The area of early modern England that was first to favor the use of you over ye ” means the first region where you made up more than 50% of the usage. The first graph to cross that 50% mark is the blue line for London. That is why the answer is London, not the North. GMAT-Club-Forum-vxtuokpa.png

Adit_ · Answer

Great question! 
The wording are tricky it basically means that there are two options either "you" or ye" but the graph shown only talks of percent of ONLY "you".
So its like yes or no situation and ur given a graph of percentage of ppl saying yes and they are exhaustive events so remaining is no or in this case "ye".

For question 1: To favor one over the other you need >50% to support it which is first done by London.
Thus London is the answer.

Adit_ · Answer

You have your answer in your very statement.
You say you are "starting" to favour one over the other.

Its the same as percentage and real numerical value differentiations.
If you have -20% increase from year 1 to year 2 in one case and +20% increase from year 1 to year 2 in another case. Can you say the numerical value of the latter case was higher than first one? No because you dont know from which value they began with.
Similarly in your case you move from 10/10 to 8/10 u decrease ur liking and tend towards cookies u are having a -20% decrease but ur still gravitating towards chocolates only as compared to cookies. You are MOVING towards a different direction doesnt mean that you DONT favour that one.

gullyboy09 · Answer

At the end this question is really not about your skills related to Graphs, but rather if you can understand what "favor the use" means here. Not sure what GMAC is trying to test from such questions, definitely not your skills related to interpretation of Graphs. That's why GMAT becomes very much driven by your verbal understanding, if you are able to understand what's written or not. Most of the Hard level Graph questions in OG are about if you are able to read the vague description correctly or not. Some Hard Graph questions where it's written straight forwardly have such a complicated graphs that have no real life application. If I make such graphs and present to my manager, he will fire me immediately.

The graph indicates the results of a survey of written material from

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