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Sim_SG3
Follow up question: A is twice more than B Is -> = Twice -> 2× (multiply by 2) But, More Than -> indicates addition Is it A = 2B (or) A = B +2B?
Adding to Simran’s query to my best understanding A is twice more than B means A = B +2B. These are all word problems where we need to translate English to Maths or vice- versa.
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Sim_SG3
Follow up question: A is twice more than B

Is -> =
Twice -> 2× (multiply by 2)
But, More Than -> indicates addition

Is it A = 2B (or) A = B +2B?

Here is my post from another topic addressing this issue:

Agree that it's confusing but check below:

Merriam Webster's Dictionary of English Usage:

    The argument in this case is that times more (or times larger, times stronger, times brighter, etc.) is ambiguous, so that "He has five times more money than you" can be misunderstood as meaning "He has six times as much money as you." It is, in fact, possible to misunderstand times more in this way, but it takes a good deal of effort. If you have $100, five times that is $500, which means that "five times more than $100" can mean (the commentators claim) "$500 more than $100," which equals "$600," which equals "six times as much as $100." The commentators regard this as a serious ambiguity, and they advise you to avoid it by always saying "times as much" instead of "times more." Here again, it seems that they are paying homage to mathematics at the expense of language. The fact is that "five times more" and "five times as much" are idiomatic phrases which have - and are understood to have - exactly the same meaning.

    The "ambiguity" of times more is imaginary: in the world of actual speech and writing, the meaning of times more is clear and unequivocal. It is an idiom that has existed in our language for more than four centuries, and there is no real reason to avoid its use.

More on this here.

Also, check the following posts by Ianstewart:

IanStewart
ethanhunt007

Hi, I have an issue with the phrase "greater than"

If I say X is twice of Y, then it should mean --> X = 2Y
If I say X is two times greater than Y, shouldn't it mean --> X = 3Y

There seems to be some confusion about this earlier in this thread. The phrase "X is 2 times greater than Y" simply means that X = 2Y. It's understandable that this might seem confusing, because if instead we say "X is 200% greater than Y" we definitely mean that X = 3Y, but this all boils down to idiomatic usage in English. If you think of smaller numbers, it might be clear this is how the phrase is used in the language (there's a reason you've never heard anyone say "X is 1 times greater than Y" to mean that X is twice as big as Y), and it's also what the dictionary says, as quoted at this link:

https://mathforum.org/library/drmath/view/61774.html


To summarize, I think the actual wording on the GMAT will always use "times as many" (at least in quant section), so you should not worry about it.
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Here is my post from another topic addressing this issue: Agree that it’s confusing but check below: Merriam Webster’s Dictionary of English Usage:
    The argument in this case is that times more (or times larger, times stronger, times brighter, etc.) is ambiguous, so that "He has five times more money than you" can be misunderstood as meaning "He has six times as much money as you." It is, in fact, possible to misunderstand times more in this way, but it takes a good deal of effort. If you have $100, five times that is $500, which means that "five times more than $100" can mean (the commentators claim) "$500 more than $100," which equals "$600," which equals "six times as much as $100." The commentators regard this as a serious ambiguity, and they advise you to avoid it by always saying "times as much" instead of "times more." Here again, it seems that they are paying homage to mathematics at the expense of language. The fact is that "five times more" and "five times as much" are idiomatic phrases which have - and are understood to have - exactly the same meaning. The "ambiguity" of times more is imaginary: in the world of actual speech and writing, the meaning of times more is clear and unequivocal. It is an idiom that has existed in our language for more than four centuries, and there is no real reason to avoid its use.
More on this here. Also, check the following posts by Ianstewart: To summarize, I think the actual wording on the GMAT will always use "times as many" (at least in quant section), so you should not worry about it.
Thank you so much, Bunuel!! That’s very reassuring :)
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Hi Bunnel. Thanks for the reply. For example, I’m sometimes confused with those like “A is more than twice as much as B” or “A is twice more than B” and so on. Just feel like my brain stops for a while seeing those comparison words. and so some more with other “as….as..”
gmat-math-book-in-downloadable-pdf-format-130609.html
Bunuel covers all the word Q’s that is generally asked in Quant here. I’ve and I am using it and its helpful. Also all other content except Geometry is useful. Vouching for this as someone who uses this book as a main point of reference when I am lost.
Hope that helped.

Bunuel
Here is my post from another topic addressing this issue: Agree that it’s confusing but check below: Merriam Webster’s Dictionary of English Usage:
    The argument in this case is that times more (or times larger, times stronger, times brighter, etc.) is ambiguous, so that "He has five times more money than you" can be misunderstood as meaning "He has six times as much money as you." It is, in fact, possible to misunderstand times more in this way, but it takes a good deal of effort. If you have $100, five times that is $500, which means that "five times more than $100" can mean (the commentators claim) "$500 more than $100," which equals "$600," which equals "six times as much as $100." The commentators regard this as a serious ambiguity, and they advise you to avoid it by always saying "times as much" instead of "times more." Here again, it seems that they are paying homage to mathematics at the expense of language. The fact is that "five times more" and "five times as much" are idiomatic phrases which have - and are understood to have - exactly the same meaning. The "ambiguity" of times more is imaginary: in the world of actual speech and writing, the meaning of times more is clear and unequivocal. It is an idiom that has existed in our language for more than four centuries, and there is no real reason to avoid its use.
More on this here. Also, check the following posts by Ianstewart: To summarize, I think the actual wording on the GMAT will always use "times as many" (at least in quant section), so you should not worry about it.
Thanks Bunuel =)
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Sim_SG3
Thank you so much, Bunuel!! That’s very reassuring :)
Thank you, Bunuel! Your explanations are really awesome.
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Which of the following fractions is the smallest?
(A) 23/45 (B) 24/46 (C) 28/57 (D) 2/3 (E) 29/58
Can anyone show me the process of how to do this question!?
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A,B are more than 0.5, D is clearly .66 and E is exactly 0.5, in C denominator is one more than double of numerator so... overall it’s less than 0.5...Hence C
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thanks for the help
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On the number line shown, the tick marks are equally spaced and the coordinates of points F and Gare 3^11 and 3^12, respectively. Which of the following points has the coordinate -(3^12)

can you guys explain this question
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sriyamunjuluri
On the number line shown, the tick marks are equally spaced and the coordinates of points F and Gare 3^11 and 3^12, respectively. Which of the following points has the coordinate -(3^12)

can you guys explain this question

This question is discussed here: https://gmatclub.com/forum/on-the-numbe ... 16629.html Hope it helps.
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Coordinate of G is 3^12.
Coordinate of F is 3^11.
All are Equally spaced
Consider this scenario
G is 12
F is 11
Then difference between g and f is 1

Similarly here
Difference is 3^12 - 3^11.
= 3^11(3-1)= 2. 3^11
This will be difference between any two consecutive
Which is between a and b
B and c, c and d, d and e, and e and f
So,
E as is next to f and nearest to f
Will be
3^11 - 2•3^11= - 3^11

And so,
D= -3^11 - 2.3^11= -3.3^11= @3^12

-
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Of the 1,000 companies responding to a certain survey, what percent indicated that they had a business recovery plan?

(1) 200 of the companies did not indicate that they had a business recovery plan.

(2) The number of companies that indicated that they had a business recovery plan was 4 times the number that did not indicate that they had a business recovery plan.

Hi Team, I’m new here.
I’d appreciate if anyone can help me understand this data sufficiency question.
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This question asks how many responded with a ’yes’. As the question states that ’out of 1000 companies responding to the survey’. It can be assumed that everyone gave some answer. Either a yes or a no.

First statement says that 200 didn’t indicate that they have a plan. Therefore, 800 indicated that they have a plan. So we get an answer. Percent of companies responded with yes is 800/1000. 80 percent.

Second statement states that companies with ’yes’ were 4 times of companies with a no. Therefore percent becomes 4/5 of 1000. 800. Again, percent is 80. This statement is also sufficient.

Answer is D. Hope it helps.
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Thank you @ankyt13.
I thought the 1st statement could also meant that some of the companies may have refused to give a response so we couldn’t be certain if 800 companies had a business recovery plan.
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You were thinking correctly because generally in these questions it is made clear that all responded and there is no scope of assumption. The statement ’out of 1000 companies responding...’ can be taken as clarity that all responded.
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