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QOTD: Since 1986 when the Department of Labor

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QOTD: Since 1986 when the Department of Labor  [#permalink]

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New post 20 Jun 2017, 12:14
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Verbal Question of The Day: Day 37: Sentence Correction


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Since 1986 when the Department of Labor began to allow investment officers' fees to be based on how the funds they manage perform, several corporations began paying their investment advisers a small basic fee, with a contract promising higher fees if the managers perform well.

(A) investment officers' fees to be based on how the funds they manage perform, several corporations began
(B) investment officers' fees to be based on the performance of the funds they manage, several corporations began
(C) that fees of investment officers be based on how the funds they manage perform, several corporations have begun
(D) fees of investment officers to be based on the performance of the funds they manage, several corporations have begun
(E) that investment officers' fees be based on the performance of the funds they manage, several corporations began

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QOTD: Since 1986 when the Department of Labor  [#permalink]

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New post 20 Jun 2017, 12:16
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This one isn't quite as ugly as the QOTD on crickets, but there's a nice bit of "next-level" pronoun stuff going on here.

And for those of you who missed it, we also covered this question in our live YouTube session this past Monday. The video is available here.

Quote:
(A) investment officers' fees to be based on how the funds they manage perform, several corporations began

OK, so here's another little nuance that the GMAT seems to like: subject pronouns ("they", in this case) can't refer back to possessive nouns. This rule seems a little bit silly to me, but I can't find any official GMAT questions that violate this rule.

So in this particular question, "they" must refer back to... "fees", I guess, since it can't refer to the possessive "investment officers'"? And "fees" would make no sense.

Also, "since 1986" requires us to use the present perfect tense "have begun," not the past tense "began." Eliminate (A).

Quote:
(B) investment officers' fees to be based on the performance of the funds they manage, several corporations began

Same exact errors as (A). So (B) is gone, too.

Quote:
(C) that fees of investment officers be based on how the funds they manage perform, several corporations have begun

I'm really not crazy about the phrase "began to allow that fees of investment officers be based on how the funds they manage perform..." Really, "allow that fees... be based..."?? That's a mess. If you wanted to be conservative, you could hang onto this one. But as we'll see in a moment, (D) is a better option.

Quote:
(D) fees of investment officers to be based on the performance of the funds they manage, several corporations have begun

Sure, this looks better: "allow fees... to be based." Much cleaner than the same part of (C). So we can keep (D).

Quote:
(E) that investment officers' fees be based on the performance of the funds they manage, several corporations began

Same pair of errors as in (A) and (B). (E) is gone, and (D) is the correct answer.
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Re: QOTD: Since 1986 when the Department of Labor  [#permalink]

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New post 20 Jun 2017, 12:30
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2 points to note here

use of since: Since will take present perfect to show the continuous effect
use of allow: Allow is used with infinitive

So A,B,C and E are out and D remains
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Re: QOTD: Since 1986 when the Department of Labor  [#permalink]

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New post 20 Jun 2017, 13:38
I chose D

Wait for the official explanation from experts.

Thank a lot
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Re: QOTD: Since 1986 when the Department of Labor  [#permalink]

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New post 20 Jun 2017, 19:45
i think option D

A,B & E are eliminated becoz pronoun they has no reference.

option C is eliminated becoz the sentence would read as ''since 1986 when .......began to allow that fees ''.. a bit awkward sentence

hence option D

pl. correct me if i am wrong

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Re: QOTD: Since 1986 when the Department of Labor  [#permalink]

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New post 20 Jun 2017, 19:51
D.
We're looking at a 'have begun' to logically show that the fee is *still* based on the performance of the funds the officers manage

Now all other options are out!
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Re: QOTD: Since 1986 when the Department of Labor  [#permalink]

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New post 21 Jun 2017, 06:28
I chose B... not getting the diff between began/have begun in this structure

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Re: QOTD: Since 1986 when the Department of Labor  [#permalink]

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New post 21 Jun 2017, 07:51
The answer has to be option D. My take :

Meaning - Since 1986 DoL began to follow a policy wherein the fees of investment officers will be based on the performance of the funds they manage. Based on this several firms have fixed a bsic fees of officers and give them higher fee based on their performance.

Error analysis - The sentence begins with since 1986 .. we need to use present perfect tense have.

Option A,B,E - eliminated for the above reason
Option C - akward construction
Option D - Correct answer
Hence the answer must be option D.
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Re: QOTD: Since 1986 when the Department of Labor  [#permalink]

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New post 21 Jun 2017, 10:25
Answer is D
Since 1986 when the Department of Labor began to allow investment officers' fees to be based on how the funds they manage perform, several corporations began paying their investment advisers a small basic fee, with a contract promising higher fees if the managers perform well.

(A) investment officers' fees to be based on how the funds they manage perform, several corporations began It is awkward and we need have to show that the action began in past and continue to do so in present.
(B) investment officers' fees to be based on the performance of the funds they manage, several corporations began Same as A
(C) that fees of investment officers be based on how the funds they manage perform, several corporations have begun That is not required here .
(D) fees of investment officers to be based on the performance of the funds they manage, several corporations have begun Correct
(E) that investment officers' fees be based on the performance of the funds they manage, several corporations began That is not required
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QOTD: Since 1986 when the Department of Labor  [#permalink]

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New post Updated on: 24 Aug 2017, 14:58
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cocojiz wrote:
I chose B... not getting the diff between began/have begun in this structure

Posted from my mobile device



Hello cocojiz,

I will be glad to help you with this one. :-)

Whenever a sentence uses since in the context of time, the sentence uses the present perfect tense verb. For example:

His brother has been serving in the army since 2000.

This official sentence also uses the phrase Since 1986. Hence, the main verb in the sentence must be in present perfect tense. Choices A, B. and E can be right away rejected for the incorrect use of simple past tense verb began.

Between Choice C and D, use of subjunctive verb form in Choice C incorrect. Choice D very precisely presents the intended meaning of the sentence.


Hope this helps. :-)
Thanks.
Shraddha
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Originally posted by egmat on 21 Jun 2017, 12:42.
Last edited by egmat on 24 Aug 2017, 14:58, edited 1 time in total.
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Re: QOTD: Since 1986 when the Department of Labor  [#permalink]

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New post 21 Jun 2017, 17:15
Hi Shraddha,

Where is the use of a present perfect tense in the example you provided? Why isn't it "His brother has served in the army since 2000"?

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QOTD: Since 1986 when the Department of Labor  [#permalink]

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New post 06 Jul 2017, 19:06
Hi GMATNinja,

Though we have no way to disagree with OA, I have the below doubt with option D

In "Fees of investment officers" , investment officers is the object of the preposition "of". And it has been much discussed in other posts that object of a preposition can't act as Subject of a sentence. So how is it that "they"'s antecedent is an object of a preposition?

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Re: QOTD: Since 1986 when the Department of Labor  [#permalink]

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New post 10 Jul 2017, 09:54
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amlan1985 wrote:
Hi GMATNinja,

Though we have no way to disagree with OA, I have the below doubt with option D

In "Fees of investment officers" , investment officers is the object of the preposition "of". And it has been much discussed in other posts that object of a preposition can't act as Subject of a sentence. So how is it that "they"'s antecedent is an object of a preposition?

I'm not quite sure what you mean by this. "They" isn't the subject of the sentence: "several corporations" is the subject of the main (independent) clause. And there's no reason why a pronoun can't refer back to the object of a preposition -- if such a rule exists somewhere, the GMAT clearly doesn't care about it.

So sure: by definition, the subject of the sentence can't simultaneously act as the object of a preposition -- but I don't think that's relevant here at all.

I hope this helps!
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Re: QOTD: Since 1986 when the Department of Labor  [#permalink]

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New post 24 Aug 2017, 03:44
Since 1986 when the Department of Labor began to allow investment officers' fees to be based on how the funds they manage perform, several corporations began paying their investment advisers a small basic fee, with a contract promising higher fees if the managers perform well.

(A) investment officers' fees to be based on how the funds they manage perform, several corporations began

(B) investment officers' fees to be based on the performance of the funds they manage, several corporations began

(C) that fees of investment officers be based on how the funds they manage perform, several corporations have begun

(D) fees of investment officers to be based on the performance of the funds they manage, several corporations have begun

(E) that investment officers' fees be based on the performance of the funds they manage, several corporations began
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QOTD: Since 1986 when the Department of Labor  [#permalink]

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New post 24 Aug 2017, 03:52
Hi GMATNinja,

In in the correct option D, i think they refers to investment officers and their refers to several corporations.

So if my reasoning is correct, they and their refer to different entities (investment officers and several corporations's).

Is this case violating the pronoun rule?

Many thanks and I'm looking forward to receive your reply :-)
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Re: QOTD: Since 1986 when the Department of Labor  [#permalink]

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New post 24 Aug 2017, 05:14
This is a case of present perfect since it uses since 1986. C and E use subjunctive which is not required. A, B and E do not use the present perfect form to denote the meaning of the sentence. D is correct as it uses the correct form of the verb.

(A) investment officers' fees to be based on how the funds they manage perform, several corporations began
(B) investment officers' fees to be based on the performance of the funds they manage, several corporations began
(C) that fees of investment officers be based on how the funds they manage perform, several corporations have begun
(D) fees of investment officers to be based on the performance of the funds they manage, several corporations have begun
(E) that investment officers' fees be based on the performance of the funds they manage, several corporations began
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Re: QOTD: Since 1986 when the Department of Labor  [#permalink]

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New post 24 Aug 2017, 15:08
mba.2020 wrote:
Hi Shraddha,

Where is the use of a present perfect tense in the example you provided? Why isn't it "His brother has served in the army since 2000"?

Thanks



Hello mba.2020,

Thank you for pointing put the error in my example sentence. I have corrected the same accordingly.

Well generally, when since is used as time marker, the sentence is written in present perfect continuous tense to present the continuation of the action in the present. We have a few official questions as well in which we see this usage in the correct answer choice.

But yes, we can also use just present perfect tense also with since as evident by the correct answer choice of the official problem in question. It is just that we cannot use simple present tense verb with since.

Hope this helps. :-)
Thanks.
Shraddha
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Re: QOTD: Since 1986 when the Department of Labor  [#permalink]

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New post 24 Aug 2017, 15:13
amlan1985 wrote:
Hi GMATNinja,

Though we have no way to disagree with OA, I have the below doubt with option D

In "Fees of investment officers" , investment officers is the object of the preposition "of". And it has been much discussed in other posts that object of a preposition can't act as Subject of a sentence. So how is it that "they"'s antecedent is an object of a preposition?

Regards
Amlan



Hello Amlan amlan1985,

I guess I know what your confusion is.

Since the noun entity investment officers lie in a prepositional phrase, you think that a pronoun cannot refer to it.

This is certianly not the case.

A noun entity in a prepositional phrase cannot act as the subject of a clause. This is the only restriction on a noun entity in a prepositional phrase. A pronoun or a noun modifier can very well refer to a noun entity preceded by a preposition.

Hence, there is no issue regarding the pronoun reference of they in the correct answer choice.

Hope this helps. :-)
Thanks.
Shraddha
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Re: QOTD: Since 1986 when the Department of Labor  [#permalink]

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New post 24 Aug 2017, 15:20
leanhdung wrote:
Hi GMATNinja,

In in the correct option D, i think they refers to investment officers and their refers to several corporations.

So if my reasoning is correct, they and their refer to different entities (investment officers and several corporations's).

Is this case violating the pronoun rule?

Many thanks and I'm looking forward to receive your reply :-)



Hello leanhdung,

I will be glad to help you with this one. :-)

A pronoun must refer to only one noun without any ambiguity whatsoever. This is the only rule that we must keep in mind while looking for ambiguous pronoun reference.

You are absolutely correct in saying that while pronoun they refer to investment officers, pronoun their refers to several corporations.

However, there is no ambiguity whatsoever in the reference of these two pronouns. The context of the sentence allows they to refer to only investments officers while allows their to refer to several corporations only.

So these two different pronouns clearly refer to two different noun entities.

Hope this helps. :-)
Thanks.
Shraddha
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QOTD: Since 1986 when the Department of Labor  [#permalink]

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New post 24 Aug 2017, 15:34
yyyyyttttt wrote:
C is right ans

Sent from my Redmi 4A using GMAT Club Forum mobile app



Hello yyyyyttttt,

I am afraid Choice C is not the correct answer for this question.

The word allow does not require subjunctive verb as we see in Choice C.

This word is followed by a to verb phrase as we see in the correct answer choice D.

Hope this helps. :-)
Thanks.
Shraddha
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