Last visit was: 18 May 2026, 17:50 It is currently 18 May 2026, 17:50
Home
Messages
Tests
Schools
Events
Close
GMAT Club Daily Prep
Thank you for using the timer - this advanced tool can estimate your performance and suggest more practice questions. We have subscribed you to Daily Prep Questions via email.

Customized
for You

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

Track
Your Progress

every week, we’ll send you an estimated GMAT score based on your performance

Practice
Pays

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History
Not interested in getting valuable practice questions and articles delivered to your email? No problem, unsubscribe here.
Go to My Error Log Learn more
Close
Request Expert Reply
Confirm Cancel
Back to Forum
Create Topic
   1   2   3   4   
605-655 (Medium)|   Idioms/Diction/Redundancy|   Pronouns|   Verb Tense/Form|                  
User avatar
pk6969
User avatar
Joined: 25 May 2020
Last visit: 02 Jan 2022
Posts: 133
Own Kudos:
14
Given Kudos: 70
Location: India
Concentration: Finance, General Management
Schools: Babson CBS '23 Broad
GPA: 3.2
Schools: Babson CBS '23 Broad
Posts: 133
Kudos: 14
Since 1986 when the Department of Labor began to allow investment offi 06 Aug 2021, 04:16
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
IanStewart
pk6969

Hi! the sentence "began to allow fees of investment officers to be based " doesn't seem correct if we go with the literal meaning. It means that department of labour allowed fees to be based... how can one allow fees to be based on something, its like giving permission to fees.

I don't think I quite follow how you're interpreting this phrase. It's a passive construction, not an active one, so the sentence is not saying that fees are being given permission to do something. If, when there's noisy construction going on outside, a high school teacher says to a class "I can't allow the math test to be taken in these conditions", the teacher isn't denying the test permission to do something. The construction is passive; it means "I can't allow the math test to be taken (by the class) in these conditions", or rephrasing it in an active way "I can't allow the class to take the math test in these conditions".

Similarly, in the original sentence, when it says, paraphrasing, "The Labor Department began to allow fees to be based on performance" it means "The Labor Department began to allow fees to be based (by the employer paying the fees) on performance", or phrased actively, "The Labor Department began to allow employers to pay fees based on performance".
Show more

Hi! Thanks for the reply! I understand passive construction is going on. But in so many questions we had to eliminate answers because they were making illogical meaning. And I thought this was one of those. How can we identify such difference? particularly in the case of passive construction.
User avatar
100mitra
User avatar
Joined: 29 Apr 2019
Last visit: 06 Jul 2022
Posts: 707
Own Kudos:
635
Given Kudos: 49
Status:Learning
Posts: 707
Kudos: 635
Since 1986 when the Department of Labor began to allow investment offi 16 Sep 2021, 04:46
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
Correct Option D

Sentence meaning is based on cause to effect or one made to another to do
Cause : Since 1986 when the Department of Labor began to allow fees of investment officers to be based on the performance of the funds they manage
Effect : several corporations have begun paying their investment advisers a small basic fee, with a contract promising higher fees if the managers perform well.

original sentence:
Since 1986 when the Department of Labor began to allow investment officers' fees to be based on how the funds they manage perform, several corporations began paying their investment advisers a small basic fee, with a contract promising higher fees if the managers perform well.

Elimination Process :
1. began to allow to have begun paying - Eliminates A, B, and E
(A) investment officers' fees to be based on how the funds they manage perform, several corporations began
(B) investment officers' fees to be based on the performance of the funds they manage, several corporations began
(E) that investment officers' fees be based on the performance of the funds they manage, several corporations began

2. Remaining with C, and D
C has flaw [usage of that fees, refer to allow / usage of How - undescribable] makes its wordy and looses grip on intended meaning.
(C) that fees of investment officers be based on how the funds they manage perform, several corporations have begun.

(D) fees of investment officers to be based on the performance of the funds they manage, several corporations have begun - Correct option D
User avatar
Vetrick
User avatar
Joined: 19 Jul 2021
Last visit: 10 Dec 2022
Posts: 46
Own Kudos:
69
Given Kudos: 30
Location: India
Posts: 46
Kudos: 69
Since 1986 when the Department of Labor began to allow investment offi 12 Nov 2021, 10:09
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
egmat
amlan1985
Hi GMATNinja,

Though we have no way to disagree with OA, I have the below doubt with option D

In "Fees of investment officers" , investment officers is the object of the preposition "of". And it has been much discussed in other posts that object of a preposition can't act as Subject of a sentence. So how is it that "they"'s antecedent is an object of a preposition?

Regards
Amlan


Hello Amlan amlan1985,

I guess I know what your confusion is.

Since the noun entity investment officers lie in a prepositional phrase, you think that a pronoun cannot refer to it.

This is certianly not the case.

A noun entity in a prepositional phrase cannot act as the subject of a clause. This is the only restriction on a noun entity in a prepositional phrase. A pronoun or a noun modifier can very well refer to a noun entity preceded by a preposition.

Hence, there is no issue regarding the pronoun reference of they in the correct answer choice.

Hope this helps. :-)
Thanks.
Shraddha
Show more


Hi,

But there is a rule which says that an adjective can't be the antecedent of pronoun, right ? (Please correct me, if I am wrong). Though, the prepositional phrase 'of the investment officers' is not exactly an adjective, it does act like an adjective which modifies the noun 'fees', right ?
In that case, can 'they' refer to 'investment officers' ?
--
Should I just remember that proper adjectives can't be antecedents of pronouns but the noun entities in the prepositional phrases can be ?

Would be great if you can help by sharing your thoughts. egmat GMATNinja

Thank you.
User avatar
GMATNinja
User avatar
GMAT Club Verbal Expert
Joined: 13 Aug 2009
Last visit: 18 May 2026
Posts: 7,393
Own Kudos:
70,930
Given Kudos: 2,137
Status: GMAT/GRE/LSAT tutors
Location: United States (CO)
GMAT 1: 780 Q51 V46
GMAT 2: 800 Q51 V51
GRE 1: Q170 V170
GRE 2: Q170 V170
Products:
GMAT Club Tests
Expert
Expert reply
GMAT 2: 800 Q51 V51
GRE 1: Q170 V170
GRE 2: Q170 V170
Posts: 7,393
Kudos: 70,930
Since 1986 when the Department of Labor began to allow investment offi 19 Nov 2021, 12:09
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
Vetrick
egmat
amlan1985
Hi GMATNinja,

Though we have no way to disagree with OA, I have the below doubt with option D

In "Fees of investment officers" , investment officers is the object of the preposition "of". And it has been much discussed in other posts that object of a preposition can't act as Subject of a sentence. So how is it that "they"'s antecedent is an object of a preposition?

Regards
Amlan


Hello Amlan amlan1985,

I guess I know what your confusion is.

Since the noun entity investment officers lie in a prepositional phrase, you think that a pronoun cannot refer to it.

This is certianly not the case.

A noun entity in a prepositional phrase cannot act as the subject of a clause. This is the only restriction on a noun entity in a prepositional phrase. A pronoun or a noun modifier can very well refer to a noun entity preceded by a preposition.

Hence, there is no issue regarding the pronoun reference of they in the correct answer choice.

Hope this helps. :-)
Thanks.
Shraddha


Hi,

But there is a rule which says that an adjective can't be the antecedent of pronoun, right ? (Please correct me, if I am wrong). Though, the prepositional phrase 'of the investment officers' is not exactly an adjective, it does act like an adjective which modifies the noun 'fees', right ?
In that case, can 'they' refer to 'investment officers' ?
--
Should I just remember that proper adjectives can't be antecedents of pronouns but the noun entities in the prepositional phrases can be ?

Would be great if you can help by sharing your thoughts. egmat GMATNinja

Thank you.
Show more
Sounds like you've almost answered your own question!

The object of a prepositional phrase (in this case, "investment officers") is in fact a noun, so it's no problem for a pronoun to refer to that noun. On the other hand, the entire prepositional phrase is a modifier, and of course it wouldn't make any sense for a pronoun to refer to the entire prepositional phrase (preposition + object).

I hope that helps!
User avatar
jabhatta2
User avatar
Joined: 15 Dec 2016
Last visit: 21 Apr 2023
Posts: 1,251
Own Kudos:
329
Given Kudos: 188
Posts: 1,251
Kudos: 329
Since 1986 when the Department of Labor began to allow investment offi Updated on: 19 Nov 2021, 20:00
Originally posted by jabhatta2 on 19 Nov 2021, 19:23.
Last edited by jabhatta2 on 19 Nov 2021, 20:00, edited 8 times in total.
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
IanStewart

I don't think I quite follow how you're interpreting this phrase. It's a passive construction, not an active one, so the sentence is not saying that fees are being given permission to do something. If, when there's noisy construction going on outside, a high school teacher says to a class "I can't allow the math test to be taken in these conditions", the teacher isn't denying the test permission to do something. The construction is passive; it means "I can't allow the math test to be taken (by the class) in these conditions", or rephrasing it in an active way "I can't allow the class to take the math test in these conditions".

Similarly, in the original sentence, when it says, paraphrasing, "The Labor Department began to allow fees to be based on performance" it means "The Labor Department began to allow fees to be based (by the employer paying the fees) on performance", or phrased actively, "The Labor Department began to allow employers to pay fees based on performance".
Show more

Hi IanStewart -

gave the following analogy of active vs passive as a similar construction to the oiginal problem (which was very helpfull)

Active : I can't allow the class to take the math test in these conditions
Passive : I can't allow the math test to be taken (by the class) in these conditions

I actually thought the passive voice in this analogy and the passive voice in the original - BOTH CASES DO NOT WORK because literally speaking – the sentence in the passive voice is implying you cant allow the math test to do something

Almost as if the math test itself is hoping to perform an action. Then the math test asked for your permission. You denied the math test permission
User avatar
jabhatta2
User avatar
Joined: 15 Dec 2016
Last visit: 21 Apr 2023
Posts: 1,251
Own Kudos:
329
Given Kudos: 188
Posts: 1,251
Kudos: 329
Since 1986 when the Department of Labor began to allow investment offi Updated on: 20 Nov 2021, 17:08
Originally posted by jabhatta2 on 19 Nov 2021, 19:32.
Last edited by jabhatta2 on 20 Nov 2021, 17:08, edited 1 time in total.
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
contd from above...

IanStewart

The reason I say this is because literal meaning is a strategy often employed when eliminating other official problems
Official example # 1 = Answer A can be eliminated because literally this means, Railroad Employees themselves are going to be added to the increase, which doesnt make sense.

Official example # 2 = Answer A is also eliminated per the official explanation, because scientsts themselves cant be BASED ON accounts ...

Simirilarly, I am struggling to understand why the passive contruction is okay in the analogy | original problem because in both cases (analogy | original problem)

You are giving way / giving permission to Fees / Math tests so that the fees / math tests themselves can peform an action
User avatar
IanStewart
User avatar
GMAT Tutor
Joined: 24 Jun 2008
Last visit: 17 May 2026
Posts: 4,146
Own Kudos:
11,323
Given Kudos: 98
Location: United States
GMAT 1: 780 Q51 V47
Expert
Expert reply
GMAT 1: 780 Q51 V47
Posts: 4,146
Kudos: 11,323
Since 1986 when the Department of Labor began to allow investment offi 20 Nov 2021, 13:47
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
jabhatta2

gave the following analogy of active vs passive as a similar construction to the oiginal problem (which was very helpfull)

Active : I can't allow the class to take the math test in these conditions
Passive : I can't allow the math test to be taken (by the class) in these conditions

I actually thought the passive voice in this analogy and the passive voice in the original - BOTH CASES DO NOT WORK because literally speaking – the sentence in the passive voice is implying you cant allow the math test to do something
Show more

You're leaving out some important words when you only highlight part of the sentence. What is not allowed to happen, in the passive example, is that "the math test be taken" under whatever conditions are problematic. The math test itself isn't being given permission to do or not do something -- that would only be true if the verb was active: "I can't allow the math test to go to the party" for example, would be a sentence where the math test was (nonsensically) being denied permission to do something. When the verb is passive, "to be taken", the math test becomes the object, not the subject, of the verb. We use constructions like this quite often, and there's nothing illogical about them. A sentence like "The law does not permit hazardous chemicals to be combined with ordinary household garbage" is a perfectly good sentence, and there's no suggestion that "hazardous chemicals" are being denied permission to do something. It's the people who dispose of garbage who are denied permission to do something with hazardous chemicals in this sentence.
User avatar
jabhatta2
User avatar
Joined: 15 Dec 2016
Last visit: 21 Apr 2023
Posts: 1,251
Own Kudos:
329
Given Kudos: 188
Posts: 1,251
Kudos: 329
Since 1986 when the Department of Labor began to allow investment offi 20 Nov 2021, 21:12
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
Hi IanStewart -

here is the passive voice of option D (getting rid of a lot of the modifiers)

Passive voice: The DOL began to allow fees to be based on performances.

I have tried making the active voice for option D. I think the active voice doesnt make any sense because you are suggesting -- you are allowing the subject - Performances to do something

Active voice: The DOL began to allow performances to base fees.

Just curious on your thoughts on my attempt to create the active version for option D.
User avatar
IanStewart
User avatar
GMAT Tutor
Joined: 24 Jun 2008
Last visit: 17 May 2026
Posts: 4,146
Own Kudos:
11,323
Given Kudos: 98
Location: United States
GMAT 1: 780 Q51 V47
Expert
Expert reply
GMAT 1: 780 Q51 V47
Posts: 4,146
Kudos: 11,323
Since 1986 when the Department of Labor began to allow investment offi 21 Nov 2021, 05:27
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
jabhatta2
Hi IanStewart -

here is the passive voice of option D (getting rid of a lot of the modifiers)

Passive voice: The DOL began to allow fees to be based on performances.

I have tried making the active voice for option D. I think the active voice doesnt make any sense because you are suggesting -- you are allowing the subject - Performances to do something

Active voice: The DOL began to allow performances to base fees.

Just curious on your thoughts on my attempt to create the active version for option D.
Show more

In passive constructions, the subject is often unmentioned, and if you want to rephrase a passive sentence in an active way, you may need to identify and insert the subject, (adding "by X") first. So in this sentence, for example:

The party was shut down because of noise complaints.

it's not clear who shut the party down (and we often prefer passive constructions like this when the subject is not that important -- the point of this sentence is that the party ended) but if we guess it was the police who shut it down, we can add the subject to the sentence above:

The party was shut down by police because of noise complaints.

and now we can rephrase this in an active way:

Police shut down the party because of noise complaints.

The same thing is true of the original sentence here -- the subject isn't mentioned. Who bases fees on performance? Presumably the investment officers charging the fees. So "DOL allowed fees to be based on performance" becomes, inserting our predicted subject, "DOL allowed fees to be based by investment officers on performance" (this is now a very awkward sentence) which becomes, as an active sentence, "DOL allowed investment officers to base their fees on performance". It's more complicated than my original example because of the string of two verbs ("allowed", "to base") but the general principle is the same.
User avatar
Karthik740
User avatar
Joined: 20 Oct 2020
Last visit: 18 Jul 2025
Posts: 37
Own Kudos:
78
Given Kudos: 20
Location: India
Concentration: Strategy, Finance
GMAT 1: 720 Q50 V38
GPA: 4
Products:
My Reviews
GMAT 1: 720 Q50 V38
Posts: 37
Kudos: 78
Since 1986 when the Department of Labor began to allow investment offi 29 Nov 2021, 11:56
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
The answers provided are amazing
avatar
Naptiste
avatar
Joined: 19 Aug 2020
Last visit: 01 May 2023
Posts: 47
Own Kudos:
3
Given Kudos: 77
Location: United Kingdom
Posts: 47
Kudos: 3
Since 1986 when the Department of Labor began to allow investment offi 03 Dec 2021, 05:00
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
Hello,

I can't understand why C° is wrong.

Can anyone help please :)


xcusemeplz2009
Since 1986 when the Department of Labor began to allow investment officers' fees to be based on how the funds they manage perform, several corporations began paying their investment advisers a small basic fee, with a contract promising higher fees if the managers perform well.


(A) investment officers' fees to be based on how the funds they manage perform, several corporations began

(B) investment officers' fees to be based on the performance of the funds they manage, several corporations began

(C) that fees of investment officers be based on how the funds they manage perform, several corporations have begun

(D) fees of investment officers to be based on the performance of the funds they manage, several corporations have begun

(E) that investment officers' fees be based on the performance of the funds they manage, several corporations began
Show more
User avatar
GMATNinja
User avatar
GMAT Club Verbal Expert
Joined: 13 Aug 2009
Last visit: 18 May 2026
Posts: 7,393
Own Kudos:
70,930
 [3]
Given Kudos: 2,137
Status: GMAT/GRE/LSAT tutors
Location: United States (CO)
GMAT 1: 780 Q51 V46
GMAT 2: 800 Q51 V51
GRE 1: Q170 V170
GRE 2: Q170 V170
Products:
GMAT Club Tests
Expert
Expert reply
GMAT 2: 800 Q51 V51
GRE 1: Q170 V170
GRE 2: Q170 V170
Posts: 7,393
Kudos: 70,930
 [3]
Since 1986 when the Department of Labor began to allow investment offi 07 Dec 2021, 20:38
2
Kudos
Add Kudos
1
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
Naptiste
Hello,

I can't understand why C° is wrong.

Can anyone help please :)


xcusemeplz2009
Since 1986 when the Department of Labor began to allow investment officers' fees to be based on how the funds they manage perform, several corporations began paying their investment advisers a small basic fee, with a contract promising higher fees if the managers perform well.


(A) investment officers' fees to be based on how the funds they manage perform, several corporations began

(B) investment officers' fees to be based on the performance of the funds they manage, several corporations began

(C) that fees of investment officers be based on how the funds they manage perform, several corporations have begun

(D) fees of investment officers to be based on the performance of the funds they manage, several corporations have begun

(E) that investment officers' fees be based on the performance of the funds they manage, several corporations began
Show more
(C) has a meaning issue. Typically, "allow that" means something like "concede that" or "admit that." For instance:

    I'll allow that Tim isn't the best dad, but I was still surprised when he attempted to reenact the climactic scene of Jaws with a real shark and his toddler.

The meaning here is that while the author admits that he knows Tim isn't a great dad, he was still surprised by his negligence.

Now apply that interpretation of "allow that" to the relevant portion of (C):

Quote:
Since 1986 when the Department of Labor began to allow that fees of investment officers be based on how the funds they manage perform
Show more
So in 1986 the Department of Labor began to admit that the fees were based on how the funds performed? Nah.

It makes far more sense to use "allow" in the sense of "permit," because the Department of Labor is making the rules, not admitting that they exist. This is the meaning we get in (D).

I hope that clears things up!
User avatar
Shreya00
User avatar
Joined: 10 Jan 2021
Last visit: 25 Jan 2024
Posts: 5
Own Kudos:
2
Given Kudos: 221
Posts: 5
Kudos: 2
Since 1986 when the Department of Labor began to allow investment offi 05 Feb 2022, 11:55
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
Hi GMATNinja,

Could you please explain why "have begun" is correct and "began" is wrong? I read a few explanations, and since I'm not a big fan of jargon, I couldn't really understand the difference. It would be really very helpful if you could explain it with some example
User avatar
GMATNinja
User avatar
GMAT Club Verbal Expert
Joined: 13 Aug 2009
Last visit: 18 May 2026
Posts: 7,393
Own Kudos:
70,930
 [1]
Given Kudos: 2,137
Status: GMAT/GRE/LSAT tutors
Location: United States (CO)
GMAT 1: 780 Q51 V46
GMAT 2: 800 Q51 V51
GRE 1: Q170 V170
GRE 2: Q170 V170
Products:
GMAT Club Tests
Expert
Expert reply
GMAT 2: 800 Q51 V51
GRE 1: Q170 V170
GRE 2: Q170 V170
Posts: 7,393
Kudos: 70,930
 [1]
Since 1986 when the Department of Labor began to allow investment offi 08 Feb 2022, 11:54
1
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
Shreya00
Hi GMATNinja,

Could you please explain why "have begun" is correct and "began" is wrong? I read a few explanations, and since I'm not a big fan of jargon, I couldn't really understand the difference. It would be really very helpful if you could explain it with some example
Show more
"Have + VERB" suggests an action that started in the past and continues into the present. The construction "Since + YEAR," implies the same -- the action started in the specified year and is ongoing.

Here, have an example:

    "The Sacramento Kings have made brilliant personnel decisions since 2003."

Translation: the team started making brilliant decisions in 2003 and they continue to make brilliant decisions today. (Apologies to all seven Kings fans out there.)

In the official example, we're talking about a behavior that's been happening "since 1986," so the "have" correctly conveys the fact that the behavior has occurred from 1986 through the present.

Put another way, I could write, "In 1986, several corporations began," or "Since 1986, several corporations have begun."

No jargon necessary! For more low-jargon rambling about verb tenses, check out this video.

I hope that helps!
User avatar
jabhatta2
User avatar
Joined: 15 Dec 2016
Last visit: 21 Apr 2023
Posts: 1,251
Own Kudos:
329
Given Kudos: 188
Posts: 1,251
Kudos: 329
Since 1986 when the Department of Labor began to allow investment offi 08 Feb 2022, 12:00
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
GMATNinja
Shreya00
Hi GMATNinja,

Could you please explain why "have begun" is correct and "began" is wrong? I read a few explanations, and since I'm not a big fan of jargon, I couldn't really understand the difference. It would be really very helpful if you could explain it with some example
"Have + VERB" suggests an action that started in the past and continues into the present. The construction "Since + YEAR," implies the same -- the action started in the specified year and is ongoing.

Here, have an example:

    "The Sacramento Kings have made brilliant personnel decisions since 2003."

Translation: the team started making brilliant decisions in 2003 and they continue to make brilliant decisions today. (Apologies to all seven Kings fans out there.)

In the official example, we're talking about a behavior that's been happening "since 1986," so the "have" correctly conveys the fact that the behavior has occurred from 1986 through the present.

Put another way, I could write, "In 1986, several corporations began," or "Since 1986, several corporations have begun."

No jargon necessary! For more low-jargon rambling about verb tenses, check out this video.

I hope that helps!
Show more

Hi GMATNinja - other than "since..." -- what other trigger words do you look out for, when thinking about using the present perfect ?
User avatar
GMATNinja
User avatar
GMAT Club Verbal Expert
Joined: 13 Aug 2009
Last visit: 18 May 2026
Posts: 7,393
Own Kudos:
70,930
 [1]
Given Kudos: 2,137
Status: GMAT/GRE/LSAT tutors
Location: United States (CO)
GMAT 1: 780 Q51 V46
GMAT 2: 800 Q51 V51
GRE 1: Q170 V170
GRE 2: Q170 V170
Products:
GMAT Club Tests
Expert
Expert reply
GMAT 2: 800 Q51 V51
GRE 1: Q170 V170
GRE 2: Q170 V170
Posts: 7,393
Kudos: 70,930
 [1]
Since 1986 when the Department of Labor began to allow investment offi 10 Feb 2022, 09:42
1
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
jabhatta2
GMATNinja
Shreya00
Hi GMATNinja,

Could you please explain why "have begun" is correct and "began" is wrong? I read a few explanations, and since I'm not a big fan of jargon, I couldn't really understand the difference. It would be really very helpful if you could explain it with some example
"Have + VERB" suggests an action that started in the past and continues into the present. The construction "Since + YEAR," implies the same -- the action started in the specified year and is ongoing.

Here, have an example:

    "The Sacramento Kings have made brilliant personnel decisions since 2003."

Translation: the team started making brilliant decisions in 2003 and they continue to make brilliant decisions today. (Apologies to all seven Kings fans out there.)

In the official example, we're talking about a behavior that's been happening "since 1986," so the "have" correctly conveys the fact that the behavior has occurred from 1986 through the present.

Put another way, I could write, "In 1986, several corporations began," or "Since 1986, several corporations have begun."

No jargon necessary! For more low-jargon rambling about verb tenses, check out this video.

I hope that helps!

Hi GMATNinja - other than "since..." -- what other trigger words do you look out for, when thinking about using the present perfect ?
Show more
As far as trigger words go, "since" is the most obvious one, but I don't recommend memorizing a list and then hunting for those words.

Instead, I'd wait until I saw a present perfect verb in an answer choice. Then I'd ask, "would it make sense if this action started in the past and continues into the present?" If I then saw the word "since", that would be one good justification. But if it just made logical sense for the action to be ongoing, well, that's a good justification too, even if there's no identifiable trigger. Either way, I'm hanging on to that option and looking for other issues.

Put another way, if I think about the verb tense logically and use context, I'm unlikely to go astray. But if I go in looking for certain key words and then blindly assume that the present perfect is wrong if I don't see those words, I might convince myself that a certain construction is incorrect, even when it isn't.

I hope that helps!
User avatar
celan
User avatar
Joined: 12 Sep 2017
Last visit: 17 May 2022
Posts: 19
Own Kudos:
11
Given Kudos: 16
Location: Korea, Republic of
Schools: Columbia CBS '24
GMAT 1: 720 Q50 V37
GPA: 3.6
Schools: Columbia CBS '24
GMAT 1: 720 Q50 V37
Posts: 19
Kudos: 11
Since 1986 when the Department of Labor began to allow investment offi 05 Mar 2022, 15:13
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
egmat
amlan1985
Hi GMATNinja,

Though we have no way to disagree with OA, I have the below doubt with option D

In "Fees of investment officers" , investment officers is the object of the preposition "of". And it has been much discussed in other posts that object of a preposition can't act as Subject of a sentence. So how is it that "they"'s antecedent is an object of a preposition?

Regards
Amlan


Hello Amlan amlan1985,

I guess I know what your confusion is.

Since the noun entity investment officers lie in a prepositional phrase, you think that a pronoun cannot refer to it.

This is certianly not the case.

A noun entity in a prepositional phrase cannot act as the subject of a clause. This is the only restriction on a noun entity in a prepositional phrase. A pronoun or a noun modifier can very well refer to a noun entity preceded by a preposition.

Hence, there is no issue regarding the pronoun reference of they in the correct answer choice.

Hope this helps. :-)
Thanks.
Shraddha
Show more




Hello, I am having trouble in understanding the rules of pronoun and what can be pronoun's antecedent.(Regarding possessive)

For instance, as far as I know, 'they' cannot have 'investment officers' as the antecedent in option A, saying 'investment officers' fees~'. This is because 'investment officer's' is possessive.
Similarly, I thought 'they' cannot have 'investment officers' as the antecedent in option D. Because, 'fees of investment officers' can be seen equal with 'investment officers' fees~', and both are possessive.
Can you experts please correct my misconception?

Thank you very much for your help.

GMATNinja egmat
User avatar
ExpertsGlobal5
User avatar
Experts' Global Representative
Joined: 10 Jul 2017
Last visit: 18 May 2026
Posts: 6,446
Own Kudos:
6,400
Given Kudos: 45
Location: India
GMAT Date: 11-01-2019
Expert
Expert reply
Active GMAT Club Expert! Tag them with @ followed by their username for a faster response.
Posts: 6,446
Kudos: 6,400
Since 1986 when the Department of Labor began to allow investment offi 06 Mar 2022, 06:33
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
celan
egmat
amlan1985
Hi GMATNinja,

Though we have no way to disagree with OA, I have the below doubt with option D

In "Fees of investment officers" , investment officers is the object of the preposition "of". And it has been much discussed in other posts that object of a preposition can't act as Subject of a sentence. So how is it that "they"'s antecedent is an object of a preposition?

Regards
Amlan


Hello Amlan amlan1985,

I guess I know what your confusion is.

Since the noun entity investment officers lie in a prepositional phrase, you think that a pronoun cannot refer to it.

This is certianly not the case.

A noun entity in a prepositional phrase cannot act as the subject of a clause. This is the only restriction on a noun entity in a prepositional phrase. A pronoun or a noun modifier can very well refer to a noun entity preceded by a preposition.

Hence, there is no issue regarding the pronoun reference of they in the correct answer choice.

Hope this helps. :-)
Thanks.
Shraddha




Hello, I am having trouble in understanding the rules of pronoun and what can be pronoun's antecedent.(Regarding possessive)

For instance, as far as I know, 'they' cannot have 'investment officers' as the antecedent in option A, saying 'investment officers' fees~'. This is because 'investment officer's' is possessive.
Similarly, I thought 'they' cannot have 'investment officers' as the antecedent in option D. Because, 'fees of investment officers' can be seen equal with 'investment officers' fees~', and both are possessive.
Can you experts please correct my misconception?

Thank you very much for your help.

GMATNinja egmat
Show more

Hello celan,

We hope this finds you well.

To answer your query, the rule that only possessive pronouns can refer to possessive nouns is not one that the GMAT really follows anymore; thus, a subject or object pronoun can be used to refer to the base of a possessive noun.

We hope this helps.
All the best!
Experts' Global Team
User avatar
PriyamRathor
User avatar
Joined: 17 Aug 2021
Last visit: 24 May 2024
Posts: 146
Own Kudos:
125
Given Kudos: 161
Location: India
WE:Corporate Finance (Accounting)
Posts: 146
Kudos: 125
Since 1986 when the Department of Labor began to allow investment offi 28 Nov 2022, 07:58
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
Quote:
Since 1986 when the Department of Labor began to allow investment officers' fees to be based on how the funds they manage perform, several corporations began paying their investment advisers a small basic fee, with a contract promising higher fees if the managers perform well.


(A) investment officers' fees to be based on how the funds they manage perform, several corporations began

(B) investment officers' fees to be based on the performance of the funds they manage, several corporations began

(C) that fees of investment officers be based on how the funds they manage perform, several corporations have begun

(D) fees of investment officers to be based on the performance of the funds they manage, several corporations have begun

(E) that investment officers' fees be based on the performance of the funds they manage, several corporations began
Show more

Hello Experts EducationAisle ParamjitDasGMAT AjiteshArun,

Please help me understand the usage of SINCE+TENSE

I was looking for have began ,and hence rejected Options C and D.

Please help me understand the meaning of the below sentences:-
1/ Some countries have begun to tackle the issue
2/Some countries have began to tackle the issue

Thanks
User avatar
egmat
User avatar
e-GMAT Representative
Joined: 02 Nov 2011
Last visit: 17 May 2026
Posts: 5,631
Own Kudos:
33,459
 [1]
Given Kudos: 707
GMAT Date: 08-19-2020
Expert
Expert reply
Posts: 5,631
Kudos: 33,459
 [1]
Since 1986 when the Department of Labor began to allow investment offi 28 Nov 2022, 09:57
1
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
PriyamRathor

Hello Experts EducationAisle ParamjitDasGMAT AjiteshArun,

Please help me understand the usage of SINCE+TENSE

I was looking for have began ,and hence rejected Options C and D.

Please help me understand the meaning of the below sentences:-
1/ Some countries have begun to tackle the issue
2/Some countries have began to tackle the issue

Thanks
Show more


Hello PriyamRathor,

Hope you are doing well. :)

Although your question is not for me, I would like to help. :)

The expression "have began" is actually incorrect. Type it on a word doc, and you will see the red line beneath "began".

Grammatically, the verbs have, has, and had are followed by the past participle form of verbs. For example, has eaten, had danced, have believed, etc. The word "begun" is the past participle form of the verb "begin". Therefore, we see the verb "have begun" in the correct answer choice.

You can look up any high-school English grammar book to find a list of the past participle form of verbs.

Hope this helps. :)
Thanks.
Shraddha.
   1   2   3   4   
Moderators:
GMATNinja
GMAT Club Verbal Expert
7393 posts
AbhishekP220108
579 posts
bhanu29
368 posts