Last visit was: 23 Jul 2024, 04:38 It is currently 23 Jul 2024, 04:38
Toolkit
GMAT Club Daily Prep
Thank you for using the timer - this advanced tool can estimate your performance and suggest more practice questions. We have subscribed you to Daily Prep Questions via email.

Customized
for You

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

Track
Your Progress

every week, we’ll send you an estimated GMAT score based on your performance

Practice
Pays

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History
Not interested in getting valuable practice questions and articles delivered to your email? No problem, unsubscribe here.
Request Expert Reply

# Since 1986 when the Department of Labor began to allow investment offi

SORT BY:
Tags:
Show Tags
Hide Tags
Manager
Joined: 09 May 2009
Posts: 110
Own Kudos [?]: 1068 [375]
Given Kudos: 13
Most Helpful Reply
GMAT Club Verbal Expert
Joined: 13 Aug 2009
Status: GMAT/GRE/LSAT tutors
Posts: 6991
Own Kudos [?]: 64571 [119]
Given Kudos: 1823
Location: United States (CO)
GMAT 1: 780 Q51 V46
GMAT 2: 800 Q51 V51
GRE 1: Q170 V170

GRE 2: Q170 V170
Intern
Joined: 16 Apr 2010
Posts: 25
Own Kudos [?]: 302 [34]
Given Kudos: 0
Director
Joined: 17 Feb 2010
Posts: 632
Own Kudos [?]: 3301 [20]
Given Kudos: 6
Re: Since 1986 when the Department of Labor began to allow investment offi [#permalink]
13
Kudos
7
Bookmarks
should be (D)

Since 1986, when the Department of Labor began to allow investment officers' fees to be based on how the
funds they manage perform, several corporations began
paying their investment advisers a small basic fee,
with a contract promising higher fees if the managers perform well.

(A) investment officers’ fees to be based on how the funds they manage perform, several corporations began - "they" has no referent

(B) investment officers’ fees to be based on the performance of the funds they manage, several corporations began - "they" has no referent

(C) that fees of investment officers be based on how the funds they manage perform, several corporations
have begun - very awkward

(D) fees of investment officers to be based on the performance of the funds they manage, several corporations have begun

(E) that investment officers' fees be based on the performance of the funds they manage, several corporations began - "they" has no referent
Experts' Global Representative
Joined: 10 Jul 2017
Posts: 5128
Own Kudos [?]: 4694 [5]
Given Kudos: 38
Location: India
GMAT Date: 11-01-2019
Re: Since 1986 when the Department of Labor began to allow investment offi [#permalink]
4
Kudos
1
Bookmarks
Expert Reply
Dear Friends,

Here is a detailed explanation to this question-

xcusemeplz2009 wrote:
Since 1986 when the Department of Labor began to allow investment officers' fees to be based on how the funds they manage perform, several corporations began paying their investment advisers a small basic fee, with a contract promising higher fees if the managers perform well.

(A) investment officers' fees to be based on how the funds they manage perform, several corporations began

(B) investment officers' fees to be based on the performance of the funds they manage, several corporations began

(C) that fees of investment officers be based on how the funds they manage perform, several corporations have begun

(D) fees of investment officers to be based on the performance of the funds they manage, several corporations have begun

(E) that investment officers' fees be based on the performance of the funds they manage, several corporations began

Choice A: This answer choice incorrectly uses the simple past tense verb "began", although the present perfect verb "have begun" is appropriate here. Additionally, this answer choice uses the subject pronoun "they" to refer to the possessive noun "officer's fees". Thus, this answer choice is incorrect.

Choice B: This answer choice displays the same errors seen in Option A. Thus, this answer choice is incorrect.

Choice C: This answer choice displays no grammatical errors; however, the use of the passive voice renders it quite wordy and awkward. Thus, while it is not incorrect, this answer choice is not a very good one.

Choice D: This answer choice maintains proper tense and pronoun use and is quite concise. Thus, this answer choice is correct.

Choice E: This answer choice displays the same errors seen in Options A and B. Thus, this answer choice is incorrect.

Hence, D is the best answer choice.

One important thing to note here is that the phrase "since 1986" makes it completely clear that the present perfect tense must be used; this tense is used to refer to actions that ended in the past but continue to have an effect in the present. In this case, the action is the act of beginning the corporations' new practice; the adoption of this practice concluded in the past but since the practice continues to this day, this adoption continues to affect the present.

To understand the concept of "Present Perfect Tense on GMAT", you may want to watch the following video (~1 minute):

All the best!
Experts' Global Team
Manager
Joined: 04 Oct 2015
Posts: 171
Own Kudos [?]: 150 [2]
Given Kudos: 242
Location: Viet Nam
Concentration: Finance, Economics
GMAT 1: 730 Q51 V36
GPA: 3.56
Re: Since 1986 when the Department of Labor began to allow investment offi [#permalink]
2
Kudos
Since 1986 when the Department of Labor began to allow investment officers' fees to be based on how the funds they manage perform, several corporations began paying their investment advisers a small basic fee, with a contract promising higher fees if the managers perform well.

(A) investment officers' fees to be based on how the funds they manage perform, several corporations began

(B) investment officers' fees to be based on the performance of the funds they manage, several corporations began

(C) that fees of investment officers be based on how the funds they manage perform, several corporations have begun

(D) fees of investment officers to be based on the performance of the funds they manage, several corporations have begun

(E) that investment officers' fees be based on the performance of the funds they manage, several corporations began
General Discussion
Intern
Joined: 07 Dec 2009
Posts: 11
Own Kudos [?]: 209 [11]
Given Kudos: 4
Re: Since 1986 when the Department of Labor began to allow investment offi [#permalink]
6
Kudos
5
Bookmarks
The correct answer is D. Whenever "since" is in a sentence this indicates the present perfect (has/have + participle) needs to be used. The action happened in the past and is continuing to happen.
Manager
Joined: 31 Aug 2011
Posts: 121
Own Kudos [?]: 808 [14]
Given Kudos: 56
Re: Since 1986 when the Department of Labor began to allow investment offi [#permalink]
10
Kudos
4
Bookmarks
In A, B and E, began is in the wrong tense. Since requires the present perfect tense: since 1986...several corporations HAVE BEGUN. Eliminate A, B and E.

In C, be based should not be in the subjunctive mood. The subjunctive mood is appropriate when an action is being requested or demanded -- not when it is being ALLOWED. The correct idiom here is allow X to Y. Eliminate C.

The correct answer is D.
Director
Joined: 09 Jun 2010
Posts: 526
Own Kudos [?]: 525 [1]
Given Kudos: 916
Re: Since 1986 when the Department of Labor began to allow investment offi [#permalink]
1
Bookmarks
I am e gmat customer and I see that many e-gmat's articles are great.

The following is from OG. I get to the right answer comfortablly.
But I do not understand the use of "with a contract... well" . This phrase modify the previous clause. Is that right? "with" refer to what noun?

It seem that gmat dose not test this point of grammar. However , knowing how "with"phrase can be used is good for us. I see this "with" phrase appear many times on gmatprep.

e gmat expert, pls, explain fully the role of "with" phrase in the sentence.
Thank you.

Since 1986, when the Department of Labor began to allow// investment officers' fees to be based on how the
funds they manage perform, several corporations began// paying their investment advisers a small basic fee,
with a contract promising higher fees if the managers perform well.
(A) investment officers’ fees to be based on how the funds they manage perform, several corporations
began
(B) investment officers’ fees to be based on the performance of the funds they manage, several
corporations began
123
(C) that fees of investment officers be based on how the funds they manage perform, several corporations
have begun
(D) fees of investment officers to be based on the performance of the funds they manage, several
corporations have begun
(E) that investment officers' fees be based on the performance of the funds they manage, several
corporations began
e-GMAT Representative
Joined: 02 Nov 2011
Posts: 4423
Own Kudos [?]: 31324 [10]
Given Kudos: 642
GMAT Date: 08-19-2020
Re: Since 1986 when the Department of Labor began to allow investment offi [#permalink]
5
Kudos
5
Bookmarks
Expert Reply
thangvietnam wrote:
I am e gmat customer and I see that many e-gmat's articles are great.

The following is from OG. I get to the right answer comfortablly.
But I do not understand the use of "with a contract... well" . This phrase modify the previous clause. Is that right? "with" refer to what noun?

It seem that gmat dose not test this point of grammar. However , knowing how "with"phrase can be used is good for us. I see this "with" phrase appear many times on gmatprep.

e gmat expert, pls, explain fully the role of "with" phrase in the sentence.
Thank you.

Since 1986, when the Department of Labor began to allow// investment officers' fees to be based on how the
funds they manage perform, several corporations began// paying their investment advisers a small basic fee,
with a contract promising higher fees if the managers perform well.
(A) investment officers’ fees to be based on how the funds they manage perform, several corporations
began
(B) investment officers’ fees to be based on the performance of the funds they manage, several
corporations began
123
(C) that fees of investment officers be based on how the funds they manage perform, several corporations
have begun
(D) fees of investment officers to be based on the performance of the funds they manage, several
corporations have begun
(E) that investment officers' fees be based on the performance of the funds they manage, several
corporations began

Hi thangvietnam,

We will definitely write an article on prepositional phrase modifiers. But for now, I will give you a general idea about your query.

“with” modifiers are very versatile modifiers.

They can modify either the preceding clause or the preceding nouns. What they modify actually depends on the context of the sentence and the wording of the modifier itself.

Consider this correct sentence from an official question:
Bihar is India’s poorest state, with an annual per capita income of \$111, lower than that of the most impoverished countries of the world.

In this sentence, with modifier actually modifies the preceding noun. With modifier in this sentence has the following sense
India’s poorest state, which has an annual per capita income of \$111
Notice how “which has” can be understood to replace “with”.

However, this modifier can be understood to modify the subject of the clause as well because of the nature of the verb - is. This is a linking verb, which establishes the following relationship:
Bihar = India’s poorest state.
So whatever modifies India’s poorest state also modifies Bihar. You can notice similar behavior of the verb-ed modifier in OG12#5 - Diabetes ranks as…

Now lets consider a scenario in which “with” modifier modifies the preceding clause.
This is a GMATPrep Question. You can find the detailed solution of this question at thislink.

Visitors to the park have often looked up into the leafy canopy and seen monkeys sleeping on the branches, with arms and legs hanging like socks on a clothesline.

The highlighted modifier above modifies the preceding clause. In essence this sentence can be written as two separate sentences:
1. Visitors to the park have often looked up into the leafy canopy and seen monkeys sleeping on the branches,
2. Their arms and legs are hung like socks on a clothesline.
So sentence 2 has been converted into with modifier. This modifier extends the thought of the preceding clause by providing a detail supporting it.

Now if the above sounds very complicated, then do not worry about it. As long as you know that these modifiers are versatile and hence can modify preceding clause and preceding nouns, you would be fine. Let the meaning of the sentence guide you. You should understand the meaning of the sentence and ensure that one of these roles fit well.

Now based on this treatment, can you analyze the sentence in your post and tell me what is the role of "with modifier". Remember CONTEXT is the key.

I look forward to your response.
Thanks,

Payal
Manager
Joined: 12 Mar 2010
Posts: 219
Own Kudos [?]: 1230 [3]
Given Kudos: 86
Concentration: Marketing, Entrepreneurship
GMAT 1: 680 Q49 V34
Re: Since 1986 when the Department of Labor began to allow investment offi [#permalink]
2
Kudos
1
Bookmarks
IMO D for the below reasons. People, please comment on my reasons.

A. 'they' cannot refer to possessive " investment officers' "
B. 'they' cannot refer to possessive " investment officers' "
C. Usage of 'that' is wrong in this case. 'Fees' should be the direct object of the verb 'allow'
D. Right
E. Usage of 'that' is wrong in this case. 'Fees' should be the direct object of the verb 'allow'
GMAT Club Legend
Joined: 19 Feb 2007
Status: enjoying
Posts: 5264
Own Kudos [?]: 42142 [12]
Given Kudos: 422
Location: India
WE:Education (Education)
Re: Since 1986 when the Department of Labor began to allow investment offi [#permalink]
6
Kudos
6
Bookmarks
Expert Reply
Two principles in play here:
1. As the term ‘since’ has been used, the tense of the main clause should be present perfect namely, ‘have begun’ A, B and E are out.
2. A concept such as allowing something is not a subject of the subjunctive mood; Hence C and E are out. This leaves only D. It uses the present perfect and does not use the subjunctive.
Manager
Joined: 23 May 2017
Posts: 191
Own Kudos [?]: 360 [2]
Given Kudos: 9
Concentration: Finance, Accounting
WE:Programming (Energy and Utilities)
Re: Since 1986 when the Department of Labor began to allow investment offi [#permalink]
1
Kudos
1
Bookmarks
2 points to note here

use of since: Since will take present perfect to show the continuous effect
use of allow: Allow is used with infinitive

So A,B,C and E are out and D remains
Current Student
Joined: 05 Sep 2016
Posts: 5
Own Kudos [?]: [0]
Given Kudos: 28
Location: Argentina
GMAT 1: 650 Q43 V36
GPA: 3.4
Re: Since 1986 when the Department of Labor began to allow investment offi [#permalink]
I chose B... not getting the diff between began/have begun in this structure

Posted from my mobile device
e-GMAT Representative
Joined: 02 Nov 2011
Posts: 4423
Own Kudos [?]: 31324 [6]
Given Kudos: 642
GMAT Date: 08-19-2020
Re: Since 1986 when the Department of Labor began to allow investment offi [#permalink]
3
Kudos
2
Bookmarks
Expert Reply
cocojiz wrote:
I chose B... not getting the diff between began/have begun in this structure

Posted from my mobile device

Hello cocojiz,

I will be glad to help you with this one.

Whenever a sentence uses since in the context of time, the sentence uses the present perfect tense verb. For example:

His brother has been serving in the army since 2000.

This official sentence also uses the phrase Since 1986. Hence, the main verb in the sentence must be in present perfect tense. Choices A, B. and E can be right away rejected for the incorrect use of simple past tense verb began.

Between Choice C and D, use of subjunctive verb form in Choice C incorrect. Choice D very precisely presents the intended meaning of the sentence.

Hope this helps.
Thanks.
Shraddha

Originally posted by egmat on 21 Jun 2017, 12:42.
Last edited by egmat on 24 Aug 2017, 14:58, edited 1 time in total.
Intern
Joined: 25 Jan 2017
Posts: 1
Own Kudos [?]: 1 [0]
Given Kudos: 100
Re: Since 1986 when the Department of Labor began to allow investment offi [#permalink]
Hi Shraddha,

Where is the use of a present perfect tense in the example you provided? Why isn't it "His brother has served in the army since 2000"?

Thanks
Intern
Joined: 05 Jul 2017
Posts: 18
Own Kudos [?]: 11 [1]
Given Kudos: 61
Re: Since 1986 when the Department of Labor began to allow investment offi [#permalink]
1
Kudos
Hi GMATNinja,

Though we have no way to disagree with OA, I have the below doubt with option D

In "Fees of investment officers" , investment officers is the object of the preposition "of". And it has been much discussed in other posts that object of a preposition can't act as Subject of a sentence. So how is it that "they"'s antecedent is an object of a preposition?

Regards
Amlan
GMAT Club Verbal Expert
Joined: 13 Aug 2009
Status: GMAT/GRE/LSAT tutors
Posts: 6991
Own Kudos [?]: 64571 [3]
Given Kudos: 1823
Location: United States (CO)
GMAT 1: 780 Q51 V46
GMAT 2: 800 Q51 V51
GRE 1: Q170 V170

GRE 2: Q170 V170
Re: Since 1986 when the Department of Labor began to allow investment offi [#permalink]
2
Kudos
1
Bookmarks
Expert Reply
amlan1985 wrote:
Hi GMATNinja,

Though we have no way to disagree with OA, I have the below doubt with option D

In "Fees of investment officers" , investment officers is the object of the preposition "of". And it has been much discussed in other posts that object of a preposition can't act as Subject of a sentence. So how is it that "they"'s antecedent is an object of a preposition?

I'm not quite sure what you mean by this. "They" isn't the subject of the sentence: "several corporations" is the subject of the main (independent) clause. And there's no reason why a pronoun can't refer back to the object of a preposition -- if such a rule exists somewhere, the GMAT clearly doesn't care about it.

So sure: by definition, the subject of the sentence can't simultaneously act as the object of a preposition -- but I don't think that's relevant here at all.

I hope this helps!
Manager
Joined: 04 Oct 2015
Posts: 171
Own Kudos [?]: 150 [2]
Given Kudos: 242
Location: Viet Nam
Concentration: Finance, Economics
GMAT 1: 730 Q51 V36
GPA: 3.56
Re: Since 1986 when the Department of Labor began to allow investment offi [#permalink]
1
Kudos
1
Bookmarks
Hi GMATNinja,

In in the correct option D, i think they refers to investment officers and their refers to several corporations.

So if my reasoning is correct, they and their refer to different entities (investment officers and several corporations's).

Is this case violating the pronoun rule?

Many thanks and I'm looking forward to receive your reply
e-GMAT Representative
Joined: 02 Nov 2011
Posts: 4423
Own Kudos [?]: 31324 [0]
Given Kudos: 642
GMAT Date: 08-19-2020
Re: Since 1986 when the Department of Labor began to allow investment offi [#permalink]
Expert Reply
mba.2020 wrote:
Hi Shraddha,

Where is the use of a present perfect tense in the example you provided? Why isn't it "His brother has served in the army since 2000"?

Thanks

Hello mba.2020,

Thank you for pointing put the error in my example sentence. I have corrected the same accordingly.

Well generally, when since is used as time marker, the sentence is written in present perfect continuous tense to present the continuation of the action in the present. We have a few official questions as well in which we see this usage in the correct answer choice.

But yes, we can also use just present perfect tense also with since as evident by the correct answer choice of the official problem in question. It is just that we cannot use simple present tense verb with since.

Hope this helps.
Thanks.
Shraddha
Re: Since 1986 when the Department of Labor began to allow investment offi [#permalink]
1   2   3   4
Moderators:
GMAT Club Verbal Expert
6991 posts
GMAT Club Verbal Expert
236 posts