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When we have SANAM pronouns we have to look at the prepositional phrase to figure out singular and plural nature of the verb.

In this sentence we have none of the numbers. Numbers is plural, so we must use plural verb have instead of has. Am i right ?
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Due to the use of plural numbers and none being a SANAM pronoun, it should be have right? Why is the correct answer not A?
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VeritasKarishma
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Since "numbers" can be counted, shouldn't the correct answer be A ?
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Nadeesh21
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Since "numbers" can be counted, shouldn't the correct answer be A ?

None can take a singular or plural verb. It depends on what we want to convey.

None of us are going to the party.
(our whole group is not going)

None of us is going to the party.
(not even one of the individuals sitting here is going)

I doubt you will be required to make your decision based on this distinction in an official question.
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Nadeesh21
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Since "numbers" can be counted, shouldn't the correct answer be A ?
Hi Nadeesh21,

I agree that the GMAT is unlikely to make this the only way to choose between two options. Here's another post that summarises the issues around none of (and neither of).
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I think "none of the numbers" should be treated as a plural phrase
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Let's not take this question too seriously. It doesn't resemble an official question at all, and I'd rather someone hadn't credited us--it's certainly not an MPrep question. It would be best to just take this one down.
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