Correct answer: E. The correct idiom is "none of ... [singular verb]," or in this case "none of the numbers ... has"

(A): Incorrect. (A) incorrectly uses the plural verb "have" for the singular "none."
(B): Incorrect. (B) incorrectly uses the simple past "got" when the present perfect is signaled by "so far."
(C): Incorrect. (C) does not follow the correct idiom "none of ... [singular verb]"
(D): Incorrect. (D), like (C), does not correctly follow the idiom.
(E): Correct

This question seems rather un-GMAT-like, especially in options (C) and (D).
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From a quick google:
“None” can be a singular pronoun if it’s referring to “not one” or “no part,” but it also can be plural when referring to “not any.”
None of the apple was eaten. Apple is a singular item, so you’d use the singular verb “was.”
None of the ballplayers were on the team bus after the game. Here, “none” refers to “not any of the ballplayers” just as much as it refers to “not one of the ballplayers,” so it can be plural. Pluralizing it not only makes it a clearer sentence, but also makes it less awkward to read.

So based on the above I'm guessing the answer should be A - since there are many numbers