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Sajjad1994
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Sajjad1994

gvij2017
For Q1, in 2008, all 4 are showing great dip in GDP and in 1982 NA & Europe struggled with declined GDP.
I think 2008 should be the answer. Why it is 1982!
Please explain.
We are talking about worldwide recession, not about largest recession in one.
If you take a closer look you will find that in 2008 there was no recession in Latin America and Soviet Union rather the situation was reversed in these two regions. While in 1982 all four region faced recession.
­You see there is a deviation towards downward region and it is more in 2008 . It cant be 1982 . Also how is it 9 years for second one
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Sajjad1994

As you can see people are not able to see the dip in 1982 well enough, so 2008 seemed to be a much intuitive option. I hope GMAT provides us clearer pictures.

Also, can you help us explain the part 2 of the question?
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my answer was 2008 and 24 how can this be the answer please help
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Agreed, the question has wrong OAs.
The first question should have answer 2008, when the dip is much more prominent than 1982.
The second question is confusing, as you have two wavy that has two periods where the gap is maximum, while another two periods where the gap is minimum.

Overall, not a great question to practice.
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The question is not good. Ignore and move on.

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The question is not good. Ignore and move on.
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