What helped me was to flip the question and ask what would the data look like, if infoclick was directly proportional to mean eye time.
If the infoclick percentage were directly proportional to the mean eye time, the ratio between the two values would remain constant. This means that as the mean eye time increases or decreases, the infoclick percentage would increase or decrease in the same proportion.
Let's assume the constant ratio is k. If we take the mean eye time and multiply it by k, we should get the infoclick percentage. For example, if the mean eye time is 6.87 seconds and the infoclick percentage is 22%, the ratio kk would be:
k=22/6.87≈3.2k
Using this ratio, we can calculate the infoclick percentage for other mean eye times. Here are a few examples:
- For a mean eye time of 7.15 seconds: Infoclick percentage=7.15×3.2≈22.88
- For a mean eye time of 8.35 seconds: Infoclick percentage=8.35×3.2≈26.72
- For a mean eye time of 8.42 seconds: Infoclick percentage=8.42×3.2≈26.94
In this directly proportional relationship, the infoclick percentage would consistently follow the same ratio relative to the mean eye time.
Now it becomes easier to compare it against the actual data and see that it is, in fact, not following the same trend. Hence a No.
adityakaregamba
KarishmaB Can you please explain the difference between directly proportional and positively correlated? There are questions where, using the same data points, if the question asked for correlation, it was positively correlated