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Bunuel
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Nidzo
We are told \(s - \frac{s}{1} < t - \frac{t}{1}\).
We can rearrange that to be: \(\frac{s^2-1}{s}<\frac{t^2-1}{t}\)


(1)
Because \(s>1\), we know then that \(t\) must be a positive number. This is as \(\frac{s^2-1}{s}\) where \(s>1\) will be positive, and the only way \(\frac{t^2-1}{t}\) can be bigger than that is if \(t\) is positive.

Actually, I think you made a transcription error that made you compute a different problem.

First, it's written 1/t - t, where t could be negative ( (1 - t^2) / t where t < - 1 would yield a positive fraction).
Second, the rest of the explanation has the wrong elements from the beginning and the multiplication mistake that I previously mentioned.

Can you review and correct your explanation then?
And please correct me if I'm wrong!
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Petunii Well spotted. I wrote down the question incorrectly. It's been corrected.
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Thank you for your answer!

Unfortunately, I am still not convinced.
As I mentioned before, if t < -1 then the fraction would be positive, resulted from negative numerator divided by negative denominator.

Correct me if I'm wrong
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In my humble opinion, complicated question because you need to plug in numbers fast and work with some kind of projection.
The question suggests C, but it’s an A.
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Official Solution:


If \(s - \frac{1}{s} < \frac{1}{t} - t\), then is \(s > t\)?

First, let's rewrite the inequality as \(s + t < \frac{1}{s} + \frac{1}{t}\).

(1) \(s > 1\)

If \(1 < s \leq t\) were true, then \(s + t\) would be the sum of two numbers greater than 1, hence more than 2. On the other hand, \(\frac{1}{s} + \frac{1}{t}\) would be the sum of two numbers less than 1, which would be a number less than 2. Therefore, if \(s < t\) were true, \(1 < s \leq t\) would be greater than \(\frac{1}{s} + \frac{1}{t}\), contradicting the given inequality. Consequently, \(1 < s \leq t\) is not possible, and thus, \(s > t\). Sufficient.

(2) \(t > 0\)

Without any information on \(s\), this statement is not sufficient. For example, consider \(s = -2\) and \(t = 1\) for a NO answer, and \(s = 1\) and \(t = \frac{1}{2}\) for a YES answer.


Answer: A
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Bunuel
If \(s - \frac{1}{s} < \frac{1}{t} - t\), then is \(s > t\) ?

(1) \(s > 1\)
(2) \(t > 0\)


We are given that s - 1/s < 1/t - t
Which can also be written as, (s^2-1)/s < (1-t^2)/t

Statement 1 tells us that s>1
Hence s^2>1
So, s^2-1>0

With this information, I know that (s^2-1)/s is positive and (1-t^2)/t is greater than something positive.
Therefore, (1-t^2)/t is itself positive.
(1-t^2)/t >0
translates to (1-t)(1+t)/t > 0
also to, (t-1)(t+1)/t < 0

Using the number line, we can tell that t<-1 or 0<t<1

And because s>1 as given in statement 1, s is definitely greater than t.
Statement 1 is sufficient.

Statement 2 tells us that t>0 but without information about s we can't tell if s>t.
Statement 2 is not sufficient.

Correct answer is A.
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