This is quite a good question, with underlying assumption intricacies. To find out the vulnerability, let's try to identify the underlying assumption of the question,
Since 5% of employees are regularly absent without negatively affecting delivery rates, the company can permanently reduce its workforce by 5% without compromising performance.
Good on paper but the critical missing aspect here is that 5% absentees on regular basis can be revolving whereas 5% workforce removed has permanent effect on workstreams which is quite different and the main underlying assumption.
Let's discuss the two popular choices -
E. He ignores the possibility that absences may be unevenly distributed at the company.
This is quite possible but is not the required assumption for the conclusion to hold true. Even if we consider the absences to be evenly distributed across the company, the conclusion could still fall apart when we permanently removing certain workforce. Like if 5 employees are absent on avg from all the departments then the work can be managed by other employees who are available on that day who can in turn take a leave some other day to reset, but if they are permanently removed then the workload for others remaining will start taking a toll on a regular basis, which means this is not a critical criteria or the main vulnerability of the argument. This option is just identifying one of the possible complications.
B. He fails to justify an assumed change in absenteeism.
This hits the core assumption of the argument, ie. he treats the rotating absence to be similar to permanent absence. Like let's suppose in the initial 5% list of absentees, Employee 1 was absent on day 1, Employee 2 on day 2 and so on, and hence there was no effect on the delivery rates. But if we remove Employee 1 permanently then it definitely can have drastic effect on the firm's outcome because few people can cover up someone else's work on rotating basis but not permanently. And this is the main assumption of the argument, and hence the vulnerability we are looking for.
Dream009
I agree - Option E is a more stronger fit. I checked with Chatgpt too:
Answer choices:
- A. He confuses absent and unemployed.
→ Not exactly; he doesn’t mistake definitions, he misuses the logic. - B. He fails to justify an assumed change in absenteeism.
→ Absenteeism isn’t assumed to change, so this doesn’t hit the core flaw. - C. He takes for granted that every employee’s level of service is identical.
→ Not central here. Even if unequal, the bigger issue is distribution. - D. He overlooks the fact that some absences are more justified than others.
→ Irrelevant. Justification doesn’t matter; coverage does. - E. He ignores the possibility that absences may be unevenly distributed at the company. ✅
→ Correct. If absences cluster in certain facilities or shifts, the company may struggle without extra staff. Cutting permanently removes flexibility that covers uneven absence patterns.
utkarsh0206
I think the option B the premise has already assumed and when they said that by approx 5% absent still the services are better than ever
and it failed to assume that the distribution of those 250 absentees might be uneven
So I think Option E would suffice