According to a provision of the partnership agreement, that was never

Question

According to a provision of the partnership agreement, that  was never exercised, each of the three co-owners has been required to offer to sell his or her portion of company stock to the other co-owners before making it available  to outsiders.

A. was never exercised, each of the three co-owners has been required to offer to sell his or her portion of company stock to the other co-owners before making it available

B. was never exercised, there has been a requirement that each of the three co-owners offer to sell his or her portion of company stock to the other co-owners before making it available for purchase

C. has never been exercised, each of the three co-owners are required to offer to sell their portion of company stock to the other co-owners making it become available

D. has never been exercised, whereby each of the three co-owners is required to offer to sell his or her portion of company stock to the other co-owners before making it available

E. has never been exercised, each of the three co-owners is required to offer to sell his or her portion of company stock to the other co-owners before making it available

Source: 800score

firas92 · Answer

I believe there's a typo in options C D and E - never never?

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sushigmat · Answer

Yes firas92 I Agree with you. Never never looks to be a typo. It is probably ‘that has never been exercised’. If that is the case, E should be the best answer. 
B and C have SVA Errors- each of the co-owners (singular)... offer, are required (plural)
 In D, if we remove the first modifier, it reads according to the provision... whereby each of the co owners is required to offer. The sentence is incomplete as it lacks a main verb.

In A there is tenses mismatch- was exercised is past and has been required is present. 
So E, given that there is a typo in it.

Posted from my mobile device

Kinshook · Answer

Hi  firas92 
Thanks. Corrected.

Kinshook · Answer

According to a provision of the partnership agreement, that  was never exercised, each of the three co-owners has been required to offer to sell his or her portion of company stock to the other co-owners before making it available  to outsiders.

A.  was never exercised , each of the three co-owners has been required to offer to sell his or her portion of company stock to the other co-owners before making it available

B.  was never exercised , there has been a requirement that each of the three co-owners offer to sell his or her portion of company stock to the other co-owners before making it available for purchase

C.  has never been exercised , each of the three co-owners are required to offer to sell their portion of company stock to the other co-owners  making it become available

D.  has never been exercised ,  whereby  each of the three co-owners is required to offer to sell his or her portion of company stock to the other co-owners before making it available

E.  has never been exercised , each of the three co-owners is required to offer to sell his or her portion of company stock to the other co-owners before making it available

IMO E

krndatta · Answer

Kinshook

Can you please explain the difference between "was" and "has". 
Why is has correct?

Thanks

ExpertsGlobal5 · Answer

Hello  krndatta ,

We hope this finds you well.

To answer your query, the action of the provision never being exercised is one that concluded in the past but continues to affect the present; thus, the use of the present perfect tense verb phrase "has never been exercised" is correct, not the simple past tense verb "was never exercised".

To understand the concept of "Present Perfect Tense" on GMAT, you may want to watch the following video (~1 minute):

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=OeqkwGHWoQQ

We hope this helps.
All the best!
Experts' Global Team

Nisha0987 · Answer

For option no. D has never been exercised, whereby each of the three co-owners is required to offer to sell his or her portion of company stock to the other co-owners before making it available. Why is this incorrect?

EducationAisle · Answer

Hi Nisha, "whereby" means "by which". Such structures mark the start of a "dependent clause".

So basically, D does not have any "independent clause", whereas every complete sentence must have at least one independent clause.

To summarize, D is not a complete sentence!

As an aside, if you are just starting to prepare for GMAT, it would really be beneficial for you to invest time and effort towards building  fundamentals  (in topics such as Independent clauses, Dependent clauses, Phrases, conjunctions etc. A  practice heavy  approach, generally doesn't yield great benefits.

You can watch our  video  on  Independent and Dependent clauses   here .

p.s. Our book    EducationAisle Sentence Correction Nirvana    discusses  Independent and Dependent clauses , their application and examples in significant detail. If you or someone is interested, PM me your email-id; I can mail the corresponding section.

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According to a provision of the partnership agreement, that was never

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According to a provision of the partnership agreement, that was never

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