Last visit was: 23 Apr 2026, 20:42 It is currently 23 Apr 2026, 20:42
Close
GMAT Club Daily Prep
Thank you for using the timer - this advanced tool can estimate your performance and suggest more practice questions. We have subscribed you to Daily Prep Questions via email.

Customized
for You

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

Track
Your Progress

every week, we’ll send you an estimated GMAT score based on your performance

Practice
Pays

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History
Not interested in getting valuable practice questions and articles delivered to your email? No problem, unsubscribe here.
Close
Request Expert Reply
Confirm Cancel
User avatar
Bunuel
User avatar
Math Expert
Joined: 02 Sep 2009
Last visit: 23 Apr 2026
Posts: 109,785
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 105,853
Products:
Expert
Expert reply
Active GMAT Club Expert! Tag them with @ followed by their username for a faster response.
Posts: 109,785
Kudos: 810,878
 [13]
1
Kudos
Add Kudos
12
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
User avatar
nalinnair
Joined: 09 Jan 2016
Last visit: 20 Nov 2024
Posts: 104
Own Kudos:
4,549
 [3]
Given Kudos: 94
Status:Persevere
Location: Hong Kong
GMAT 1: 750 Q50 V41
GPA: 3.52
Products:
GMAT 1: 750 Q50 V41
Posts: 104
Kudos: 4,549
 [3]
2
Kudos
Add Kudos
1
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
User avatar
chetan2u
User avatar
GMAT Expert
Joined: 02 Aug 2009
Last visit: 22 Apr 2026
Posts: 11,229
Own Kudos:
45,004
 [3]
Given Kudos: 335
Status:Math and DI Expert
Location: India
Concentration: Human Resources, General Management
GMAT Focus 1: 735 Q90 V89 DI81
Products:
Expert
Expert reply
GMAT Focus 1: 735 Q90 V89 DI81
Posts: 11,229
Kudos: 45,004
 [3]
2
Kudos
Add Kudos
1
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
User avatar
nipunjain14
Joined: 07 May 2015
Last visit: 12 Aug 2017
Posts: 150
Own Kudos:
83
 [2]
Given Kudos: 21
Location: India
GMAT 1: 660 Q48 V31
GPA: 3
GMAT 1: 660 Q48 V31
Posts: 150
Kudos: 83
 [2]
1
Kudos
Add Kudos
1
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
A^2b=A
A^2b-A=0
A (Ab-1)=0
Since A >0 then
Ab-1=0
A=1/b

Ans:B
User avatar
TeamGMATIFY
Joined: 20 Aug 2015
Last visit: 31 Oct 2016
Posts: 339
Own Kudos:
1,527
 [1]
Given Kudos: 10
Location: India
GMAT 1: 760 Q50 V44
Expert
Expert reply
GMAT 1: 760 Q50 V44
Posts: 339
Kudos: 1,527
 [1]
1
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
Bunuel
If a > 0, b > 0, and (a^2)b = a, then which of the following MUST equal a?

A. 1/(b^2)
B.1/b
C. b
D. b^2
E. b^2 – 2b +1


Kudos for correct solution.

(a^2)b = a
Since both a and b are greater than 0, we can directly cancel out the powers of a from both sides
Therefore, ab = 1
Or a = 1/b
Option B
avatar
dmod14
Joined: 10 Oct 2017
Last visit: 21 Jun 2018
Posts: 3
Given Kudos: 36
Concentration: Marketing
GPA: 3.71
Posts: 3
Kudos: 0
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
Would this work?

(a^2)b=a
divide both sides by a^2
b=a/a^2
b=1/a
a=1/b
User avatar
abhimahna
User avatar
Board of Directors
Joined: 18 Jul 2015
Last visit: 06 Jul 2024
Posts: 3,481
Own Kudos:
5,779
 [2]
Given Kudos: 346
Status:Emory Goizueta Alum
Products:
Expert
Expert reply
Posts: 3,481
Kudos: 5,779
 [2]
1
Kudos
Add Kudos
1
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
dmod14
Would this work?

(a^2)b=a
divide both sides by a^2
b=a/a^2
b=1/a
a=1/b

Hey dmod14 ,

Yes, this will work. You can divide by \(a^2\) only if you know that a is non zero. Since this question explicitly mentions that, you are good but don’t divide if it is not given.

Does that make sense?
User avatar
BelisariusTirto
Joined: 03 Oct 2024
Last visit: 15 Apr 2025
Posts: 33
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 64
Posts: 33
Kudos: 4
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
I'm a bit confused by the working out... The solutions posted reach the consensus that because a > 0, ab - 1 = 0.. Does this just mean that it cannot be anything BELOW 0? Thus we assume ab - 1 = 0? (because of a > 0) From all the solutions listed I feel like I should instantly grasp it but I had to re-read the solutions a few times..

Like how do we go from \(a(ab-1) = 0\) , oh \(a > 0\), and \(b > 0\), so it must be that \(ab - 1 = 0\) then \(ab = 1\) ... tada \(a = 1/b\) (to clarify the last part I do understand, I just have trouble with the general thought process to reach there, trying to wrap my head around it.)
User avatar
Bunuel
User avatar
Math Expert
Joined: 02 Sep 2009
Last visit: 23 Apr 2026
Posts: 109,785
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 105,853
Products:
Expert
Expert reply
Active GMAT Club Expert! Tag them with @ followed by their username for a faster response.
Posts: 109,785
Kudos: 810,878
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
BelisariusTirto
If a > 0, b > 0, and (a^2)b = a, then which of the following MUST equal a?

A. 1/(b^2)
B. 1/b
C. b
D. b^2
E. b^2 – 2b +1

I'm a bit confused by the working out... The solutions posted reach the consensus that because a > 0, ab - 1 = 0.. Does this just mean that it cannot be anything BELOW 0? Thus we assume ab - 1 = 0? (because of a > 0) From all the solutions listed I feel like I should instantly grasp it but I had to re-read the solutions a few times..

Like how do we go from \(a(ab-1) = 0\) , oh \(a > 0\), and \(b > 0\), so it must be that \(ab - 1 = 0\) then \(ab = 1\) ... tada \(a = 1/b\) (to clarify the last part I do understand, I just have trouble with the general thought process to reach there, trying to wrap my head around it.)

Don't overcomplicate it. This is a fairly easy question. The condition a > 0 implies a ≠ 0, allowing us to reduce (a^2)b = a by dividing both sides by a, giving ab = 1. Similarly, the condition b > 0 implies b ≠ 0, allowing us to divide by b, resulting in a = 1/b. That's it!

Answer:" B.
User avatar
BelisariusTirto
Joined: 03 Oct 2024
Last visit: 15 Apr 2025
Posts: 33
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 64
Posts: 33
Kudos: 4
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
Bunuel, thank you for making it so clear for me. I couldn't see it until you explained it.
Bunuel
BelisariusTirto
If a > 0, b > 0, and (a^2)b = a, then which of the following MUST equal a?

A. 1/(b^2)
B. 1/b
C. b
D. b^2
E. b^2 – 2b +1

I'm a bit confused by the working out... The solutions posted reach the consensus that because a > 0, ab - 1 = 0.. Does this just mean that it cannot be anything BELOW 0? Thus we assume ab - 1 = 0? (because of a > 0) From all the solutions listed I feel like I should instantly grasp it but I had to re-read the solutions a few times..

Like how do we go from \(a(ab-1) = 0\) , oh \(a > 0\), and \(b > 0\), so it must be that \(ab - 1 = 0\) then \(ab = 1\) ... tada \(a = 1/b\) (to clarify the last part I do understand, I just have trouble with the general thought process to reach there, trying to wrap my head around it.)

Don't overcomplicate it. This is a fairly easy question. The condition a > 0 implies a ≠ 0, allowing us to reduce (a^2)b = a by dividing both sides by a, giving ab = 1. Similarly, the condition b > 0 implies b ≠ 0, allowing us to divide by b, resulting in a = 1/b. That's it!

Answer:" B.
Moderators:
Math Expert
109785 posts
Tuck School Moderator
853 posts