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Bunuel
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I feel the question is easy but lengthy!!
Day wise cost trajectory looks like this with an important caveat at Day2 end which says the price drop was 1 dollar that means (initial price - Day 2 final price) = 1$

C -> C(1+k/100) -> C(1-k/100)*(1+k/100) [DAY 2 end price]

as per our caveat => C - C(1-(k^2/100^2)) = 1 => K^2/100^2 = 1/C -------- (1) important observation

C -> C(1+k/100) -> C(1-k/100)*(1+k/100) [DAY 2 end price] -> [DAY 2 end price](1+k/100) -> [DAY 2 end price](1+k/100)(1-K/100) = C(1-(K^2/100^2))^2

using observation 1, we have :
C(C-1)^2 / C^2 => (C-1)^2 = 398C
and on expansion it gives:
C^2 - 400C + 1 = 0

we can simply use approximation in the root formula : sqr(b)-root(D) / 2a
and root(400^2 - 4) can be approximated as 400 itself

Thus, answers are either 0 or 400. 0 isnt' possible so we can approx solution to 400. Final answer!
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