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Bunuel
For the sequence \(a_1\), \(a_2\), …, an, every term after the first can be found using the equation \(a_n=2(a_{n−1})\). If \(a_1=\frac{1}{2}\), then \(a_{49}\) is what percent less than \(a_{52}\)?

A. 12.5
B. 25
C. 50
D. 75
E. 87.5


Are You Up For the Challenge: 700 Level Questions

We are told that each term in this sequence is double the previous one, therefore this is a geometric progression with a ratio r=2.
Using this fact; A52= A49x2x2x2= A49x8

We are asked A49 is what percent less than A52; which can be translated as: A49= (100%-x%) A52
A49/A52= 100%-x%
A49/A49x8= 1/8=100%-x%

We must memorize that 1/8= 12,5%
Hence x%=100%-12,5%= 87,5%

Correct answer is E
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Bunuel
For the sequence \(a_1\), \(a_2\), …, an, every term after the first can be found using the equation \(a_n=2(a_{n−1})\). If \(a_1=\frac{1}{2}\), then \(a_{49}\) is what percent less than \(a_{52}\)?

A. 12.5
B. 25
C. 50
D. 75
E. 87.5
Solution:

  • The given sequence is a GP with first term \(a=\frac{1}{2}\) and common ratio \(r=2\)

  • We are asked the value of \(\frac{a_{52}-a_{49}}{a_{52}}\times 100\)
    \(=\frac{a\times r^{51}-a\times r^{48}}{a\times r^{51}}\times 100\) (General term of GP \(=ar^{n-1}\))

    \(=\frac{\frac{1}{2}\times 2^{51}-\frac{1}{2}\times 2^{48}}{\frac{1}{2}\times 2^{51}}\times 100\)

    \(=\frac{2^{50}-2^{47}}{2^{50}}\times 100\)

    \(=(1-\frac{1}{8})\times 100\)

    \(=\frac{7}{8}\times 100\)

    \(=87.5\%\)

Hence the right answer is Option E
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