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Bunuel
A box contains 5 chips, numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5. Chips are drawn randomly one at a time without replacement until the sum of the values drawn exceeds 4. What is the probability that 3 draws are required?

A. 1/15
B. 1/10
C. 1/6
D. 1/5
E. 1/4


Are You Up For the Challenge: 700 Level Questions
Sum exceeds 4 that means, for first 2 draw, sum can be 3 or 4. Then add the 3rd draw to increase the value.
1. If first draw is 1, second draw can be 2 or 3, third draw can be any one of the 3 values. Therefore, 1/5 + 2/4 + 3/3 = 1/10.
2. If first draw is 2, second draw is 1, third draw can be any one of the 3 values. Therefore, 1/5 + 1/4 + 3/3 = 1/20.
3. If first draw is 3, second draw is 1, third draw can be any one of the 3 values. Therefore, 1/5 + 1/4 + 3/3 = 1/20.
By combining the above three cases, we get 4/20=1/5(D).­
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The only way that 3 draws are needed is if the first two numbers drawn are either: \(1\)&\(2\), \(2\)&\(1\), \(1\)&\(3\) or \(3\)&\(1\) (4 pairs)

Number of ways in which two numbers can be drawn from 5: \(2*\frac{5!}{2!3!}= 20\)

Which means that the probability of there being 3 draws is: \(\frac{4}{20}\) or \(\frac{1}{5}\)

Answer D
*5!/2!3! How can this one equal 20? im so confused.
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Given: A box contains 5 chips, numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5. Chips are drawn randomly one at a time without replacement until the sum of the values drawn exceeds 4. Asked: What is the probability that 3 draws are required?

First 2 draws required = {(1,2),(2,1)(1,3),(3,1)} = 4
Total number of 2 draws = 2*5C2 = 20
The probability that 3 draws are required = 4/20 = 1/5

IMO D
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