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In the question it is given that: "each batter can either hit a home run, hit a single, or strikeout".
My doubt is if any of the two are given, shouldn't the probability of other event be obtained by subtracting the addition of the two from 1?
If that is the case, then we can estimate the probability of all the three events and determine the answer using either of the options?
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So I'm not an expert in baseball, but here goes.

Since a 'Home Run' is scoring at least 1 point (i.e. equivalent to X # of 'Singles'), I'm thinking of the problem this way:
1 - P (Strikeout) = P (Not a Strikeout)

We only need to know P(Strikeout) to determine who is likely to give away at least a point i.e. regardless of a Single or a Home Run, that's counted towards one's likelihood of giving away a point.

(1) Statement 1 provides 4x P(Strikeout) for Greg than for Roger
--> 1 - P(Strikeout) for Roger = 1 - x
--> 1 - P(Strikeout) for Greg = 1 - 4x ---> the remainder is lesser than for Roger i.e. Greg is less likely to allow a point than for Roger before recording a strikeout.

(2) Statement 2 is insufficient since it says nothing about the actual magnitude of the strikeout rate for both batters.

Answer is (A).
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Bunuel
In the game of Funball, each batter can either hit a home run, hit a single, or strikeout, and the likelihood of each outcome is completely determined by the opposing pitcher. A Funball batter scores a point for their team by advancing sequentially through each of four "bases", according to the following rules:

Home run: The batter and any players already on a base advance through all four bases.
Single: The batter advances to first base, and any players already on a base advance one base each.
Strikeout: No one advances any bases, and the batter loses his/her turn.

If the batting team has a runner on first base, which pitcher (Roger or Greg) is more likely to allow a point before recording a strikeout?


(1) Greg is twice as likely as Roger to allow a single, and four times as likely as Roger to record a strikeout.
(2) Greg is twice as likely as Roger to allow a single, and one fourth as likely as Roger to allow a home run.

Bunuel Please explain the scoring system of Funball game. Please also provide a diagram showing 4 bases and how a team scores points during Home run and Singles?
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Dear IanStewart Bunuel GMATGuruNY VeritasKarishma,

I'm completely lost in this question.
Could you please provide an explanation?
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varotkorn

I'm completely lost in this question.
Could you please provide an explanation?

It's an absurd question, nothing like anything you'll see on the GMAT. For one thing, it's culturally biased -- the GMAT is not a test of whether you know about sports, but this question setup is probably almost incomprehensible to someone unfamiliar with baseball. You'll never see questions like that on the GMAT. That's also the reason you don't see questions on the GMAT about card games, say (and even when talking about dice, the GMAT explains what a die is). The question setup is also far more complicated than any real GMAT question, and far more complicated than necessary to test the concept the question is trying to test.

The idea is roughly this:

home runs are really bad
singles are fairly neutral
strikeouts are really good

If, from Statement 1, Greg is much more likely to get a strikeout or single than Roger, then Roger must be more likely than Greg to get a home run. So Greg is more likely to get the good outcomes, and Roger more likely to get the bad, and Statement 1 is sufficient. Statement 2 is not sufficient, because we don't have a way to compare how likely it is each person gets a good outcome (a strikeout).

But honestly the question isn't worth spending any time on.
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