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17 Dec 2018, 01:05
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Difficulty:
55%
(hard)
Question Stats:
58% (01:36) correct
42%
(01:45)
wrong
based on 162
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A bag contains 6 red chips numbered 1 through 6, respectively, and 6 blue chips numbered 1 through 6, respectively. If 2 chips are to be picked sequentially from the bag of 12 chips, without replacement, what is the probability of picking a red chip and then a blue chip with the same number?
A. 1/36
B. 1/22
C. 1/11
D. 1/2
E. 6/11
A. 1/36
B. 1/22
C. 1/11
D. 1/2
E. 6/11
Archit3110
Updated on: 17 Dec 2018, 02:42
Originally posted by Archit3110 on 17 Dec 2018, 02:21.
Last edited by Archit3110 on 17 Dec 2018, 02:42, edited 1 time in total.
Last edited by Archit3110 on 17 Dec 2018, 02:42, edited 1 time in total.
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Bunuel
P of a no from red chips : 6/12 and of blue is also 1/6
6/12 * 1/11 = 1/22 IMO B
17 Dec 2018, 02:26
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Probability of red chip = 6/12=1/2
Probability of blue chip with the same number = 1/11
P=1/2*1/11=1/22
Posted from my mobile device
Probability of blue chip with the same number = 1/11
P=1/2*1/11=1/22
Posted from my mobile device
