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I was writing an analysis report today and found a statement written by my colleague.
Original statement: Company X holds apprx 46% of Company Y's share capital will be entitled to designate two candidates
Modified statement: Here i have two views in mind while changing the statement.
1. Mod Stmt: X holds appx 46% stake in Y and will be entitled to designate two candidates (completely on future basis)
2. Mod stmt: X holds apprx 46% stake in Y and is entitled to designate two candidate (as a whole, keeping in mind, the right to designate since the time they held the stake)
I often get confused when writing the shareholders agreement reports. Please correct me in all aspects.
Thanks in advance!
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As a consequence of having 46% of the shares they have this right NOW. When they get to do it is in the future, but they have the right now.
Hope that helps.
James
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NOW. Check. I was stuck on that little difference. It helped. Thank you so much,James.
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Hi there,
This topic has been closed and archived due to inactivity or violation of community quality standards. No more replies are possible here.
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