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Nkathiyawadi
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According to my understanding, the answer should be C, since the argument talks about those who can access web on mobile devices, will be able to make online purchases. C is the one that connects both of them through the assumption that those who can access on mobile devices, will actually WANT TO make online purchases. A definitely doesn't seem like the answer, B comes a close second. Need help!
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Option D:

I would choose option D because the question states majority of 3 billion people who had internet access will use mobile device to access web and then make online purchases anytime.

So, why option D.

It tells that all the people who can able to do online purchase are from areas where it is accessible. let's say if people are not from those areas, even though they can access web through mobile they cannot make online purchase if they do not have the facility. This contradicts the conclusion. Hence we have to assume the D is right.
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Please show a pathway to the correct answer.
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According to a research, 3 billion people had access to internet in 2016, half the world's population. The majority of them would use mobile devices to access the web, ensuring that they will be able to make purchases anytime, by the mere touch of a screen.

The argument depends on assuming which of the following?

The argument moves from “people have access to the internet” to “people can make purchases anytime through mobile devices.” The key assumption is that this access is practical access: people who can access the web can actually afford to use the internet.

(A) Those who can access the web can actually afford the internet.

This is correct. If people technically have web access but cannot afford to use the internet, then access would not ensure that they can make purchases anytime by touching a screen.

(B) Those who can afford the internet can afford to make online purchases.

This is not required. The argument is about the ability to make purchases online, not whether people can afford the products they might buy.

(C) Those who have internet on their mobile device would be interested in making online purchases.

This is not required. The conclusion is about ability, not interest.

(D) All those who have internet on their mobile devices are from areas where online purchases can be made and delivered.

This is too strong. The argument does not need to assume this about all mobile internet users, and it does not specifically focus on delivery.

(E) People with access to internet will actually want to access the internet.

This is not required. Wanting to use the internet is different from being able to use it.

Answer: (A)
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Nkathiyawadi
I have seen this problem in one of the practices set books. They have given an official answer, but it does not seem to be correct. Can you explain and provide logical answer for this question?
Ignore the question. Doesn't make much sense.

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