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03 May 2016, 05:21
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D
Be sure to select an answer first to save it in the Error Log before revealing the correct answer (OA)!
Difficulty:
35%
(medium)
Question Stats:
70% (01:44) correct
30%
(02:04)
wrong
based on 66
sessions
History
Date
Time
Result
Not Attempted Yet
If xyn<0<xym, is y<0
(1) xn>0
(2) xn > xm
(1) xn>0
(2) xn > xm
Pure algebraic questions like this one are no longer part of the GMAT Data Sufficiency syllabus.
For relevant Data Sufficiency questions, please check the Data Sufficiency forum:
Data Sufficiency Forum
Data Sufficiency Forum
03 May 2016, 20:14
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Bunuel
(1) xn > 0
Now it is given that xyn<0..
but if xn>0, y<0 as xn*y<0, that is xn and y will have opposite signs.
Sufficient
(2) xn>xm
We are given that \(xym >xyn………..xym-xyn>0…………….(xm-xn)*y>0..\)
but statement tells us xn>xm or xm-xn<0.
But xm-xn<0 is possible ONLY when y has the same sign as xm-xn.
So y<0
Sufficient
D
11 Jul 2021, 18:23
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I'm not really a fan of this question because in scenario 1:
X(N)>0 implies either both X and N are positive or both X and N are negative. Now, one would seem to think that it locks it up that its sufficient since y would have to be negative (less than zero). BUT, if Y = 0, than xyn would equal zero and thus the inequality would fail. Is this just a poorly worded question? I feel like the question maker should have said xyn <= 0 OR y <= 0.
Thoughts?
X(N)>0 implies either both X and N are positive or both X and N are negative. Now, one would seem to think that it locks it up that its sufficient since y would have to be negative (less than zero). BUT, if Y = 0, than xyn would equal zero and thus the inequality would fail. Is this just a poorly worded question? I feel like the question maker should have said xyn <= 0 OR y <= 0.
Thoughts?
