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Difficulty:
75%
(hard)
Question Stats:
41% (02:25) correct
59%
(01:57)
wrong
based on 39
sessions
History
Date
Time
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Not Attempted Yet
Given that P and Q are non-zero integers, is P/Q>(PQ)^2?
(1) P/Q > 0
(2) Q < 0
(1) P/Q > 0
(2) Q < 0
Pure algebraic questions like this one are no longer part of the GMAT Data Sufficiency syllabus.
For relevant Data Sufficiency questions, please check the Data Sufficiency forum:
Data Sufficiency Forum
Data Sufficiency Forum
19 Dec 2022, 05:12
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Avi077
\(\frac{P}{Q}>(PQ)^2\)
Divide both sides by positive quantity \((PQ)^2\).
\(\frac{P}{(PQ)^2*Q}>1\)
\(\frac{1}{PQ^3}>1\)
If \(PQ^3<0\), then \(\frac{1}{PQ^3}\) is never greater than 1.
If \(PQ^3>0\), then maximum value of \(\frac{1}{PQ^3}\) is 1 when P and Q are 1 each and thus is never greater than 1 again.
So, ‘ Is \(\frac{P}{Q}>(PQ)^2\)?’ will always be NO, whatever be the statements.
Faulty question.
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