Hi RohanNewDelhi,That's a sharp thing to notice, and the good news is you don't have to settle it. The "workday" definition turns out to be a red herring here: whether a workday means Mon-Fri, a 6-day week, or anything else, it has
no effect on the answer.
Here's why. On the GMAT you never import outside facts about how companies or countries schedule their weeks. You only use what the statements give you. And what makes this question
E has nothing to do with naming the days - it's that we never learn whether the three events land on the
same days.
The real gapThe statements hand you three separate frequencies:
- Formals: half the days, and coffee on every formal day
- Car:
3 of every
5 days
But "how often" is not "on which days." To get the probability of all three happening
together, you'd need to know how the car days overlap with the formal days - and nothing tells you that.
Two cases that both fit - and disagreeTake
10 days. Formals on
5 of them, car on
6 of them (
3/5).
-
Maximum overlap: all
5 formal days are also car days, so all three happen on
5 days, probability
5/10 = 1/2-
Minimum overlap: car days avoid formal days as much as possible, so only
1 day has all three, probability
1/10Same statements, two different answers. That's the textbook signal for
not sufficient - and it holds no matter how you define a workday. So the combination fails.
This is also why the earlier "
1/2 x
1 x
3/5 =
0.3" reply doesn't hold: multiplying the probabilities quietly assumes the events are independent, which the problem never tells us.
Answer: ERohanNewDelhi
do we assume monday - friday as workdays even if it is not explicitly mentioned? as diff companies, diff countries have diff workdays