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Bunuel
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HRX273
so what i did was i rounded the value of 37.7 to 40 percent and then as doing so both of the value would be divisible by that 160 as well. i know it gives bit higher approx but values bit differ so i choose 1000.... let me know if that logic is okay ???
Not sure how rounding would help, 40% will get multiplied to 160 not divided. The correct approach is to remember 1/8 = 12.5%, thus 37.5% = 3/8 and then solve.
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40% of 160 = 64 (instead of 60)

Then 64 is (64 ÷ 6) × 100 = 1066.67%, not the same as 1000%. So value were bit difference so that's how I crack this
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Bunuel
What percent of 6 is 37.5% of 160?

(A) 800
(B) \(900 \frac{1}{2}\)
(C) 1000
(D) \(1100 \frac{1}{3}\)
(E) 1200
Lets calculate 37.5%

(1/8) = 12.5%

(3/8) = 37.5%

37.5% of 160

= (3/8)* 160

= 60.

(x/100) * 6 = 60

x = 1000.

Option C
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37.5 can be written as 75/2% of 160 is

75/2 *1/100*160=60

now 60 is what % of 6 => 60/6*100=1000 Option C
Bunuel
What percent of 6 is 37.5% of 160?

(A) 800
(B) \(900 \frac{1}{2}\)
(C) 1000
(D) \(1100 \frac{1}{3}\)
(E) 1200
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What percent of 6 is 37.5% of 160?
37.5% of 160 = (3/8)*160=60
Now we need to find what percent of 6 is 60.
(x/100)*6=60
x=60*100/6=1,000

C
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do we have a list of % to fractions that we should be remembering? are there one's that are more common than others?
Krunaal

Not sure how rounding would help, 40% will get multiplied to 160 not divided. The correct approach is to remember 1/8 = 12.5%, thus 37.5% = 3/8 and then solve.
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