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Price =p
discount price = 0.8 p
since he got 20 instead of 15 , therefore 0.8*15*P=Alpha*p*20
Alpha=0.6
the price is 0.6*P
Now he get 20% profit.
CP*1.2 =0.6P
CP=P/2
or P=2*CP
So the price is double the cost price
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Using cost price as the baseline, think of it this way and multiply accordingly:

1. Profit margin

(2. and 3. are interchangeable)

2. Cash discount
3. Bargain pieces

6/5 (20% profit) * 5/4 (20% cash discount) * 4/3 (20 for the price of 15) = 200%

Answer (A)
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Here's how I tried to solve:

What we know?

P2 = bargained price
P1 = discounted price
M = marked price
C = cost
-------------------
What's the question?

M/C =?
-------------------
P2 * 20 = P1 * 15 (Bought 20 papers at the same cost of 15 papers)
P1 = 80M (Discounted 20%, so discounted price was 0.8market price)
P2 = 120C (Bargained price was 20% more than cost or 20% profit)

So here we just replace P1,P2 with known points

120C * 20 = 80M *15
20/15 = 80M/120C
M/C = 4/3* 3/4 = 1 or 100%
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I agree with Sambon, question should be reworded for clarity - current phrasing makes it sound like the 20 for 15 overpowers the previous 20% discount regardless of what it was.
Sambon
KarishmaB
This question should be reworded for clarity. What makes us interpret that there were two successive discounts instead of one?
The question says that the "dealer offers a cash discount of 20%. Further, a customer bargains and receives 20 articles for the price of 15 articles.

My understanding as I read: A dealer offers a discount of 20% but the customer negotiates further and receives 20 articles for the price of 15 articles, meaning that he negotiated a 25% discount instead of a 20% discount.
If x is the new price of the article, y is the original price, and C is the cost:
\(20x=15y \)
\(x=\frac{3}{4}*y\)
\(\frac{3}{4}y = \frac{6}{5}C \)
\(y = \frac{8C}{5}\) (the original price was therefore marked up by 60% above the cost if you consider only one discount)

Now I understand that 60% is not a possible answer choice, and we should be reflecting back on the question to see what we did wrong. But nothing in the sentence indicates that there should be two successive discounts. Thoughts?
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let x% markup on CP, so MP=CP(1+x/100)
on this there is flat 20% discount so its charged at 80% of MP.
additionally, buyer gets 20 items at the price of 15 items.
simply means additional seller discount is (20-15)/20*100=25% or is charged at 75% of 80% of MP.
SP=CP(1+x/100)*8/10*3/4------i
also seller net profit is still 20% i.e. SP=1.2 CP------2
from i and ii
CP(1+x/100)*8/10*3/4=1.2 CP
(1+x/100)=2
x/100=1 or x=100%
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