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poopooperson
This is weird one. I understood the grammar but was having a hard time figuring out what the intent of the sentence was supposed to be.

Are they comparing likelihood of a woman touching another woman vs man touching woman? woman touching woman vs woman touching man? woman touching woman vs man touching man? I did get the correct answer, but, for instance, C also seems grammatically correct and is a plausible interpretation of the of the original sentence's intent

Hello poopooperson,

We hope this finds you well.

To answer your query, this sentence is meant to compare the likelihood of a woman touching another woman with the likelihood of a man touching another man.

Further, Option C uses the phrase "another woman", implying that both parties involved are women, so we cannot logically interpret C to mean that the comparison is between the likelihood of a woman touching another woman and a man touching a woman.

We hope this helps.
All the best!
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poopooperson
This is weird one. I understood the grammar but was having a hard time figuring out what the intent of the sentence was supposed to be.

Are they comparing likelihood of a woman touching another woman vs man touching woman? woman touching woman vs woman touching man? woman touching woman vs man touching man? I did get the correct answer, but, for instance, C also seems grammatically correct and is a plausible interpretation of the of the original sentence's intent

Hello poopooperson,

We hope this finds you well.

To answer your query, this sentence is meant to compare the likelihood of a woman touching another woman with the likelihood of a man touching another man.

Further, Option C uses the phrase "another woman", implying that both parties involved are women, so we cannot logically interpret C to mean that the comparison is between the likelihood of a woman touching another woman and a man touching a woman.

We hope this helps.
All the best!
Experts' Global Team

Just checking, what makes A incorrect? I know "another woman" means a man touching a woman isn't involved. But it seems like choice A is just saying a woman is more likely to touch another woman than touch a man during conversation. Thanks.
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poopooperson
This is weird one. I understood the grammar but was having a hard time figuring out what the intent of the sentence was supposed to be.

Are they comparing likelihood of a woman touching another woman vs man touching woman? woman touching woman vs woman touching man? woman touching woman vs man touching man? I did get the correct answer, but, for instance, C also seems grammatically correct and is a plausible interpretation of the of the original sentence's intent

Hello poopooperson,

We hope this finds you well.

To answer your query, this sentence is meant to compare the likelihood of a woman touching another woman with the likelihood of a man touching another man.

Further, Option C uses the phrase "another woman", implying that both parties involved are women, so we cannot logically interpret C to mean that the comparison is between the likelihood of a woman touching another woman and a man touching a woman.

We hope this helps.
All the best!
Experts' Global Team

Just checking, what makes A incorrect? I know "another woman" means a man touching a woman isn't involved. But it seems like choice A is just saying a woman is more likely to touch another woman than touch a man during conversation. Thanks.

Hello jps245,

We hope this finds you well.

To answer your query, Option A is a bit incoherent in this regard; the construction of this phrase implies that a woman is more likely to touch another woman than a man is to touch "another woman", which does not make sense, as the word "another" implies that there is more than one woman involved in the interaction.

Option D avoids this issue through the phrase "than a man would another man".

We hope this helps.
All the best!
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Hi Experts' Global Team

Ok, that makes sense, but I guess I was just wondering how we know the original sentence implies that we're comparing the "woman" taking the action to a man taking the action, and "man" isn't just the second object of the comparison (woman is more likely to touch "another woman" than touch a "man"). is it how the sentence is structured?

Thanks for your response
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Hi Experts' Global Team

Ok, that makes sense, but I guess I was just wondering how we know the original sentence implies that we're comparing the "woman" taking the action to a man taking the action, and "man" isn't just the second object of the comparison (woman is more likely to touch "another woman" than touch a "man"). is it how the sentence is structured?

Thanks for your response

Hello jps245,

We hope this finds you well.

To answer your query, yes; it is largely down to how the sentence is structured.

To convey the alternate meaning you have suggested, the sentence would have to be "A woman is four to six times more likely to touch another woman in a social conversation than to touch a man."

We hope this helps.
All the best!
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Thanks Experts' global team, that makes sense. The comparison should be explicit to remove any confusion. Answer D is the only one that accomplishes this.

Thanks again
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