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Sajjad1994
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AnirudhaS
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Gaurav2896
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AnirudhaS
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Gaurav2896
Hi AnirudhaS please explain Q2.
Sure. See the question for is "according to the author..."
It is wise to go back to the passage for these types of questions, even if we remember the jist of the passages. So lets go back to part where this is encountered -
"Although a historical lack of access to formal Spanish-language education initially limited the opportunities of some Chicanos to hone their skills as writers of Spanish, their bilingual culture clearly fostered an exuberant and compelling oral tradition. It has thus generally been by way of the emphasis on oral literary creativity that these Chicano writers, whose English-language works are sometimes uninspired, developed the powerful and arresting language that characterized their Spanish-language works."

So minus the fluff, this statement literally tells us that Chicano writers developed their oral skills because they lacked access to language education. Hence they developed powerful and arresting language (here language still refers to oral, rather than written) per the author.

Option A just makes sense.
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Can someone explain Q3 please?
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AnirudhaS
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Lemon95
Can someone explain Q3 please?
The line preceding says -
"This Spanish-English difference is not surprising."
The following sentences just elaborate on this, i.e. why there was a difference in the quality of work when written in Spanish and English. The author says that they could maintain the flair of their oral (Spanish) skills in their writings, hence Spanish writings were good. On the other hand, since the English writings needed to satisfy the national newspapers, the same flair could not be maintained by the Chicanos.

(D) They explain the causes of a phenomenon mentioned in the third sentence of the passage.

Here the phenomenon is the Spanish-English difference in writing.

Hope this helps.
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