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Bunuel
An urn contains five chips, numbered 1 through 5. Three chips are drawn out at random (without replacement). What is the probability the largest chip in the sample is a 4?

A. 1/10
B. 1/5
C. 3/10
D. 2/5
E. 1/2
I tried using selection method.
We can get 4 in following ways:
1. Number 4 at first draw then other two numbers(none of which is 5)
2. Number 4 at second draw then other two numbers(none of which is 5)
3. Number 4 at third draw then other two numbers(none of which is 5)

Hence, Probability, P =
\(\frac{1}{5}*\frac{3}{4}*\frac{2}{3} + \frac{3}{5}*\frac{1}{4}*\frac{2}{3} + \frac{3}{5}*\frac{2}{4}*\frac{1}{3}\)
\(= \frac{1}{10} + \frac{1}{10} + \frac{1}{10}\)
\(= \frac{3}{10}\)

Answer C.
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5 chips:
1 — 2 — 3 — 4 — 5


Probability of picking a 4 as the highest out of THREE Picks:


(1st) Different ways to have Outcome

Pick 4 - NOT Pick 5 - NOT Pick 5

3! / 2! = 3 different ways to have the Outcome


(2nd)Probability of One such Outcome

P (pick 4) = 1/5
*
P (NOT pick 5) = 3/4
*
P (NOT pick 5) = 2/3


(3! / 2!) * (1/5) * (3/4) * (2/3) = 3/10

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krushal95
can someone explain how to solve this questions using methods such as the ones in OG.

Thanks.

Looking at this probability problem, I'll show you the systematic GMAT approach that's commonly used in the Official Guide.

Understanding the Question:
You need the probability that when drawing 3 chips from {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}, the largest chip drawn is exactly 4 (not 5).

Step 1: Identify the Constraint:
For the largest chip to be 4:
  • Chip 4 must be selected
  • Chip 5 must NOT be selected
  • The other 2 chips must come from {1, 2, 3}

Step 2: Count Favorable Outcomes:
Since chip 4 is fixed in our selection, we need to choose 2 more chips from the 3 remaining eligible chips {1, 2, 3}:
Favorable outcomes = \(C(3,2) = \frac{3!}{2!(3-2)!} = 3\)
These combinations are: {1,2,4}, {1,3,4}, {2,3,4}

Step 3: Count Total Possible Outcomes:
Total ways to select any 3 chips from 5:
Total outcomes = \(C(5,3) = \frac{5!}{3!(5-3)!} = 10\)

Step 4: Calculate Probability:
\(P(\text{largest is 4}) = \frac{\text{Favorable outcomes}}{\text{Total outcomes}} = \frac{3}{10}\)

Answer: C

Key GMAT Strategy:
When a problem asks for "the largest/smallest is X," translate this into:
  1. X must be included
  2. All values larger/smaller than X must be excluded
  3. Choose remaining items from the eligible pool

This constraint-based counting method appears frequently in GMAT probability questions and helps avoid the common error of overcounting or undercounting scenarios.
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Hi Bunuel chetan2u MartyMurray

I followed the logic here that we have 5 as the largest number and subtract that probability from 1

This means that we can select 2 numbers from the set {1,2,3,4}, we can select 2 numbers as 4C2.

Total ways to select 3 numbers is 5C3

so the P (4 as largest) = 1 - (4C2/5C3) = 4/10 = 2/5

Could you please explain me what I am doing wrong here?
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agrasan
An urn contains five chips, numbered 1 through 5. Three chips are drawn out at random (without replacement). What is the probability the largest chip in the sample is a 4?

A. 1/10
B. 1/5
C. 3/10
D. 2/5
E. 1/2

Hi Bunuel chetan2u MartyMurray

I followed the logic here that we have 5 as the largest number and subtract that probability from 1

This means that we can select 2 numbers from the set {1,2,3,4}, we can select 2 numbers as 4C2.

Total ways to select 3 numbers is 5C3

so the P (4 as largest) = 1 - (4C2/5C3) = 4/10 = 2/5

Could you please explain me what I am doing wrong here?

You correctly calculated the probability that 5 is not the highest number. However, subtracting this from 1 does not give the probability of 4 being the largest; it gives the probability of 4 or 3 being the largest. To isolate the probability of 4 being the largest, you also need to subtract the probability that 3 is the largest. That probability is 1/10, since there is only one way to choose three numbers with 3 as the largest ({1,2,3}). So, subtracting 1/10 from 4/10 gives 3/10, which is the correct answer.
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