pacifist85
I got a little bit confused...
Isn't it that for consecutive intergers the mean of the first+last are equal to the mean of the set of consecutive integers?
Even if they are consecutive odds, evens, or consecutive numbers that include negatives (like -2, -1, 0), the mean is always equal to the middle term.
So, both [1] and [2] actually say the same thing, that 2b=a+c. So, why cannot we assume that yes they are consecutive integers, and go for D?
hi pacifist,
consecutive evens =2,4,6 or 6,8,10
consecutive odds= 1,3,5 or 5,7,9
and consecutive numbers = 2,3,4 or 5,6,7..
you are right the two statements mean the same that the centre term is avg of the 1st and 3rd number..
this basically means the 1st and 3rd numbers are at the same distance from middle no..
so options satisfying this are 1,2,3 or 2,4,6 or 2,6,10 and so on..
but as you can see it is not necessary they are consecutive numbers..
hope it cleared ur doubt..