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robinbjoern
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Company executive: Ten years ago, we held an 80% market share 27 Oct 2020, 02:52
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The answer is not correct. Imagine there are 10 Units in the market. now first the US company sells 8 units
If the market is doubled we have 20 units. 40% of 20 units are also 8 -> there must NOT be a revenue increase!
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shubhim20
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Company executive: Ten years ago, we held an 80% market share 18 Jun 2025, 01:40
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Bunuel @KaarishmaB MartyMurray please help with this
Lucy Phuong
Company executive: Ten years ago, we held an 80% market share in Japan, even though we are a U.S.-based company. At that time, Japanese consumers overwhelmingly preferred our products to those locally produced in Japan. Over the past ten years, our market share in Japan has decreased to almost 40%. However, our revenue from the Japanese has actually increased.

Which of the following best help to explain the above discrepancy?

A. The size of the company market for the company's product has double over the past ten years
B. The population of Japan has remained the same over the past ten years
C. The company has increased its selling price for the product over the past ten years
D. Over the past ten years, local Japanese manufacturers have introduced a number of low cost products that compete with the company's product line
E. Consumer sentiment in Japan has shifted away from imported goods and towards domestically produced goods

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----

OE: [as below in my post]

----
Dear experts GMATNinja, I just had a related question that is, when it's said "A decreased to almost 40%", is there any case that A could decrease to 39% or some percentage that is a little less than 40%? In my opinion, "almost 40%" means a little either higher or lower than 40%. What do you think about this? Please shed some light on it. Thank you!
---> [The concern has been solved. Answer will be provided below too]

Revised/edited Version of this question is HERE (V10-30).

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