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11 Sep 2003, 09:56
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So the answer to a sentence correction prob in my GMAT 800 book is:
"none of my friends has"
it states that none is singular so it needs a singular verb (has).
but ...
in my Gmat for Dummies book it reads that the words "some, any, most, all, none" can be singular or plural and will take the number of the object in the prepositional phrase ...
thus it states that the answer should be
"none of my friends have" (since friends is plural)
SO WHICH IS RIGHT????
"none of my friends has"
it states that none is singular so it needs a singular verb (has).
but ...
in my Gmat for Dummies book it reads that the words "some, any, most, all, none" can be singular or plural and will take the number of the object in the prepositional phrase ...
thus it states that the answer should be
"none of my friends have" (since friends is plural)
SO WHICH IS RIGHT????
Archived Topic
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This topic has been closed and archived due to inactivity or violation of community quality standards. No more replies are possible here.
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14 Sep 2003, 04:24
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Newyork1
This is a long argued rule. I don't think ETS tests controversial choices like this. In any case, FWIW, my rule of thumb is to use none as both singular and plural. If I can think: "none of them" I use plural, and if I can think "none of it" I use singular.
None of my friends are going to her party.
None of that last perfomance was worth watching.
Archived Topic
Hi there,
This topic has been closed and archived due to inactivity or violation of community quality standards. No more replies are possible here.
Where to now? Join ongoing discussions on thousands of quality questions in our Verbal Questions Forum
Still interested in this question? Check out the "Best Topics" block above for a better discussion on this exact question, as well as several more related questions.
Thank you for understanding, and happy exploring!
