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Critics who claim that the sale of U.S. military equipment to other countries is destabilizing and leads to war take a narrow view of history. War occurs when one country gains a military advantage over another. By selling arms, the U.S. can ensure that the military balance among countries is maintained and war avoided.
1- The above argument depends on which of the following assumptions?
A) Arms sales by the U.S. do not lead to wars between countries
B) Critics do not understand military history
C) Countries can accurately determine one another's military strength
D) Arms imbalances stimulate conflict between countries
E) Critics misunderstand the principle of military balance between countries
2- Which of the following, if true, most weakens the above argument?
A) Military equipment is usually used to intimidate rather than to actually conduct war
B) A country's military strength depends on military equipment rather than on the expertise of military commanders
C) The sale and delivery of military equipment is usually known only by the two countries involved
D) The military advantages of all countries are well known by the U.S.
E) Military equipment sold by the U.S. to other countries is less sophisticated than the equipment it produces for itself
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D is already stated in the argument, then how can it be an assumption...
I was debating between A and C...If we negate A, then the argument falls apart...C may also be neccessary, since if we cant analyze the military strenth, then we cannot know if there is an imbalance....But we have to choose one out of these two..will choose C...
I will go for E,,,,in the last one...
The author is trying to imply that (IMO) the US by selling its own equipment is balancing the Military strengths of all other countries with its own...But if US ITSELF has far more superior equipment then it might have an advantage over others.....
Negate C - A country cannot determine other country's military strength
If this is true we cannot say for sure whether there will be war or not because since they cannot accurately determine the strenght they might miscalculate and go to war. In this scenario the balance of arms cannot play any role.
However if D is negated then there is no need to balance power by selling arms ( the whole arguments rests on defining a gal for US selling arms )
OA is C and C
For question 1, D cannot be it because as Monarc said, D is merely a stated argument. We do not need to presume it to be an assumption because it already is true. The assumption would be countries could determine one another's strength. Without such capacity, how can we then say that "the U.S. can ensure that the military balance among countries is maintained and war avoided"?
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