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Sub 505 Level|   Algebra|            
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paki
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NvrEvrGvUp
Bumping this up for a quick question.

Original question is asking whether jkmn = 1.

I rephrased to: does jk = 1/(mn) by dividing both sides by mn

Statement 1: jk/mn = 1 --> rephrase to jk = mn
Since jk = mn and does not equal 1/mn, I said this was sufficient.

Statement 2: j = 1/k; m = 1/n --> rephrase to jk = 1 and mn = 1
Sufficient

I chose answer choice D while the OA is B. Can someone please explain where I went wrong?

jk = mn and jk = 1/mn does not exclude each other.

Does the product JKMN = 1?

(1) (JK)/(MN) = 1 --> JK=MN. The question becomes: does (MN)^2=1. We don't know that. Not sufficient.

(2) J= (1/K) and M = (1/N) --> JKMN = 1/K*K*1/N*N = 1. Sufficient.

Answer: B.
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NvrEvrGvUp
Bumping this up for a quick question.

Original question is asking whether jkmn = 1.

I rephrased to: does jk = 1/(mn) by dividing both sides by mn

Statement 1: jk/mn = 1 --> rephrase to jk = mn
Since jk = mn and does not equal 1/mn, I said this was sufficient.

Statement 2: j = 1/k; m = 1/n --> rephrase to jk = 1 and mn = 1
Sufficient

I chose answer choice D while the OA is B. Can someone please explain where I went wrong?

jk = mn and jk = 1/mn does not exclude each other.

Does the product JKMN = 1?

(1) (JK)/(MN) = 1 --> JK=MN. The question becomes: does (MN)^2=1. We don't know that. Not sufficient.

(2) J= (1/K) and M = (1/N) --> JKMN = 1/K*K*1/N*N = 1. Sufficient.

Answer: B.

But what happens if K=0 or N=0? It would be wrong to assume 1/K*K=1 because of the indetermination. Can someone clarify?
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Bunuel
NvrEvrGvUp
Bumping this up for a quick question.

Original question is asking whether jkmn = 1.

I rephrased to: does jk = 1/(mn) by dividing both sides by mn

Statement 1: jk/mn = 1 --> rephrase to jk = mn
Since jk = mn and does not equal 1/mn, I said this was sufficient.

Statement 2: j = 1/k; m = 1/n --> rephrase to jk = 1 and mn = 1
Sufficient

I chose answer choice D while the OA is B. Can someone please explain where I went wrong?

jk = mn and jk = 1/mn does not exclude each other.

Does the product JKMN = 1?

(1) (JK)/(MN) = 1 --> JK=MN. The question becomes: does (MN)^2=1. We don't know that. Not sufficient.

(2) J= (1/K) and M = (1/N) --> JKMN = 1/K*K*1/N*N = 1. Sufficient.

Answer: B.

But what happens if K=0 or N=0? It would be wrong to assume 1/K*K=1 because of the indetermination. Can someone clarify?

Division by 0 is not allowed: anything/0 is undefined. So, for (2) neither k nor n can be 0 because in this case 1/k and 1/n would be undefined and could not equal to real numbers j and m.

Does this make sense?
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Bunuel
HermesM11


But what happens if K=0 or N=0? It would be wrong to assume 1/K*K=1 because of the indetermination. Can someone clarify?

Division by 0 is not allowed: anything/0 is undefined. So, for (2) neither k nor n can be 0 because in this case 1/k and 1/n would be undefined and could not equal to real numbers j and m.

Does this make sense?

Got it! But it seems that I need to assume every number on GMAT is real, right? The question doesn’t mention it.

Posted from my mobile device
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Bunuel
HermesM11


But what happens if K=0 or N=0? It would be wrong to assume 1/K*K=1 because of the indetermination. Can someone clarify?

Division by 0 is not allowed: anything/0 is undefined. So, for (2) neither k nor n can be 0 because in this case 1/k and 1/n would be undefined and could not equal to real numbers j and m.

Does this make sense?

Got it! But it seems that I need to assume every number on GMAT is real, right? The question doesn’t mention it.

Posted from my mobile device

Yes, all numbers used are real numbers by default.
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Hello from the GMAT Club BumpBot!

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