navderm
I read through all the solutions presented here, but I still don't exactly understand why the presence of 'before' in B does not preclude the use of past perfect here.
Can someone please explain this!
Hi
Let me try to address your query.
A past perfect tense is used when there are two events occurring in the past, to refer to the earlier of those two events. Let us plug in answer option (B) into the sentence and examine it:
Each of the vegetables in the store was washed with vegetable wash before it was sold.As we can clearly see, there are two events happening in the past tense:
Earlier event: washed with vegetable wash
Later event: was sold
We need to use the past perfect tense to refer to the earlier event. Hence, "washed with vegetable wash" needs to be preceded by "had been".
Hope this clarifies.
Not satisfied with your explanation since in Aristotle, it is clearly mentioned that if phrases like "before"/previously etc. is explicitly mentioned in the sentence then there is no need to use a past perfect. However, we can still use a past perfect if we want to