Last visit was: 19 Nov 2025, 22:41 It is currently 19 Nov 2025, 22:41
Close
GMAT Club Daily Prep
Thank you for using the timer - this advanced tool can estimate your performance and suggest more practice questions. We have subscribed you to Daily Prep Questions via email.

Customized
for You

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

Track
Your Progress

every week, we’ll send you an estimated GMAT score based on your performance

Practice
Pays

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History
Not interested in getting valuable practice questions and articles delivered to your email? No problem, unsubscribe here.
Close
Request Expert Reply
Confirm Cancel
User avatar
LamboWalker
Joined: 06 Jun 2021
Last visit: 01 Jul 2025
Posts: 251
Own Kudos:
853
 [10]
Given Kudos: 304
GMAT Focus 1: 675 Q86 V81 DI83
GMAT Focus 2: 735 Q90 V85 DI84
GMAT 1: 690 Q48 V35
GMAT Focus 2: 735 Q90 V85 DI84
GMAT 1: 690 Q48 V35
Posts: 251
Kudos: 853
 [10]
2
Kudos
Add Kudos
8
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
User avatar
Bunuel
User avatar
Math Expert
Joined: 02 Sep 2009
Last visit: 19 Nov 2025
Posts: 105,391
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 99,977
Products:
Expert
Expert reply
Active GMAT Club Expert! Tag them with @ followed by their username for a faster response.
Posts: 105,391
Kudos: 778,396
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
User avatar
DanTheGMATMan
Joined: 02 Oct 2015
Last visit: 18 Nov 2025
Posts: 378
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 9
Expert
Expert reply
Posts: 378
Kudos: 227
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
User avatar
Heix
Joined: 21 Feb 2024
Last visit: 19 Nov 2025
Posts: 365
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 63
Location: India
Concentration: Finance, Entrepreneurship
GMAT Focus 1: 485 Q76 V74 DI77
GPA: 3.4
WE:Accounting (Finance)
Products:
GMAT Focus 1: 485 Q76 V74 DI77
Posts: 365
Kudos: 155
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
couldn't understand why you stop upto 39 and 40 can you please explain this

Bunuel
LamboWalker
­For all positive integers j and k, the operation k ◇ j is defined to be the product of j consecutive integers, beginning with k. For example, 6 ◇ 4 = 6 x 7 x 8 x 9. If a = 20 ◇ 20 and b = 21 ◇ 20, then \(\frac{a}{b}\) =­

(A) \(\frac{21}{40}\)

(B) \(\frac{20}{39}\)

(C) \(\frac{20}{21}\)

(D) \(\frac{1}{5}\)

(E) \(\frac{1}{2}\)­
­

\(a = 20 ◇ 20 = 20 * 21 * ... * 39\) (the product of 20 consecutive integers, beginning with 20)

\(b = 21 ◇ 20 = 21 * 22 * ... * 40\) (the product of 20 consecutive integers, beginning with 21)
Therefore:

\(\frac{a}{b}=\)

\(=\frac{20 * 21 * ... * 39}{21 * 22 * ... * 40}=\)

\(=\frac{20}{ 40}=\)

\(=\frac{1}{ 2}\)
Answer: E.­
User avatar
Bunuel
User avatar
Math Expert
Joined: 02 Sep 2009
Last visit: 19 Nov 2025
Posts: 105,391
Own Kudos:
778,396
 [1]
Given Kudos: 99,977
Products:
Expert
Expert reply
Active GMAT Club Expert! Tag them with @ followed by their username for a faster response.
Posts: 105,391
Kudos: 778,396
 [1]
1
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
Heix
couldn't understand why you stop upto 39 and 40 can you please explain this

Bunuel
LamboWalker
­For all positive integers j and k, the operation k ◇ j is defined to be the product of j consecutive integers, beginning with k. For example, 6 ◇ 4 = 6 x 7 x 8 x 9. If a = 20 ◇ 20 and b = 21 ◇ 20, then \(\frac{a}{b}\) =­

(A) \(\frac{21}{40}\)

(B) \(\frac{20}{39}\)

(C) \(\frac{20}{21}\)

(D) \(\frac{1}{5}\)

(E) \(\frac{1}{2}\)­
­

\(a = 20 ◇ 20 = 20 * 21 * ... * 39\) (the product of 20 consecutive integers, beginning with 20)

\(b = 21 ◇ 20 = 21 * 22 * ... * 40\) (the product of 20 consecutive integers, beginning with 21)
Therefore:

\(\frac{a}{b}=\)

\(=\frac{20 * 21 * ... * 39}{21 * 22 * ... * 40}=\)

\(=\frac{20}{ 40}=\)

\(=\frac{1}{ 2}\)
Answer: E.­

You're multiplying 20 consecutive integers starting from 20, so the last number will be 20 + 20 - 1 = 39. Similarly, for b, you start at 21 and multiply 20 consecutive numbers, ending at 21 + 20 - 1 = 40. That's why a goes from 20 to 39 and b from 21 to 40.
User avatar
gmatuser523
Joined: 17 Apr 2025
Last visit: 01 Jul 2025
Posts: 4
Posts: 4
Kudos: 0
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
pro tip - always remember 0 --> 9 is 10 numbers - this one always confuses me but it logically makes sense: 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 are 10 numbers

That way 10, 11, 12, 13, 14 ,15, 16, 17, 18, 19 are 10 numbers

so the 20 numbers in 20 (diamond) 20 would be:

20 * 21 * (...) * 29 * 30 * 31 * (...) 39

which comes out to 20 numbers

Same applies for 21 square 20, except this time you shift one number down. Then from there you divide & cancel out to get 20/40 = 1/2
Moderators:
Math Expert
105390 posts
Tuck School Moderator
805 posts