Hi
bb,
Bunuel, and any other GMAT experts who care to weigh in,
I'd like to consult your expertise. I took a first crack at the GMAT in early January and got a 710 (Q44, V42). Stated percentiles were quant 57 and verbal 96, overall percentile 91. I made a stupid decision to buy the not-so-in-depth in-depth score report which said that my percentile rankings were quant 58, verbal 96, and overall 92. This was confusing but I didn't contact the GMAT folks because I am planning on rewriting, and hoping to get a higher score this time around.
I took an official practice test today, and got a 710 (Q46, V42), with percentiles quant 71, verbal 96, and overall 92. Unfortunately 3 of my 7 verbal errors were in the first 5 questions, argh. Anyway, I had taken this same practice test in early December and got a couple of the same questions but luckily couldn't remember for the life of me what the answers were or how I approached the questions last time. In December my score was 710 (Q45, V42) with percentiles quant 68, verbal 96, and overall 92.
I am wondering, why did I get 710 on both practice tests if my quant score was higher? According to the table in this topic, I should have scored 720 today. I'm also wondering - why did I get 91 percentile on the actual test in January but the in-depth analysis said 92 percentile? In addition, the quant percentiles table posted here says 46 is 64 percentile??
I'd really appreciate your help on this. I'm rewriting Friday next week, and I absolutely need my quant to be over 70th percentile - my school of choice would require it. And a 720 would be better than a 710, like 92 percentile would be better than 91.
Cheers!