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15 Oct 2025, 00:19
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D
Be sure to select an answer first to save it in the Error Log before revealing the correct answer (OA)!
Difficulty:
45%
(medium)
Question Stats:
67% (01:46) correct
33%
(01:51)
wrong
based on 305
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I do not agree that wage disparity still exists between men and women. Almost all salaried individuals today are paid based on their qualification and experience and not their sex. It is only the lower labour class where the disparity still exists, but this is justified because there are certain tasks requiring physical strength, such as carrying heavy construction material, that can only be performed by men.
If the above statements are true, which of the following is an example of wage disparity on the basis of gender?
(A) A company pays its management trainees, most of whom are females and have just passed out from business schools, a lower salary than it pays to its senior partners, most of whom are males.
(B) A male labourer who does not do any physically taxing work is paid a lower wage than a male labourer who does physically taxing work.
(C) A female employee at a managerial level in a company gets a lower salary than a female employee who has joined the company as a trainee but whose uncle is a partner in the company.
(D) A male labourer who does not do any physical work is paid a higher wage than a female labourer who does not do any physical work.
(E) A male manager working for Company X gets paid a higher salary than does a female manager with similar experience working for Company Z
If the above statements are true, which of the following is an example of wage disparity on the basis of gender?
(A) A company pays its management trainees, most of whom are females and have just passed out from business schools, a lower salary than it pays to its senior partners, most of whom are males.
(B) A male labourer who does not do any physically taxing work is paid a lower wage than a male labourer who does physically taxing work.
(C) A female employee at a managerial level in a company gets a lower salary than a female employee who has joined the company as a trainee but whose uncle is a partner in the company.
(D) A male labourer who does not do any physical work is paid a higher wage than a female labourer who does not do any physical work.
(E) A male manager working for Company X gets paid a higher salary than does a female manager with similar experience working for Company Z
15 Oct 2025, 10:59
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Alright, the answer is definitely (D).
Here's why. The whole point of the original argument is that wage gaps are only okay for two reasons: 1) different skills/experience for office jobs, or 2) men doing heavy physical work in labor jobs.
Option (D) is the only one that completely dismantles this. You have a male and a female laborer. Neither is doing any heavy physical work. They are doing the same job, but the man is getting paid more. That's the textbook definition of wage disparity based on gender because the argument's only excuse (physical strength) has been taken away.
Let's look at why the others are wrong:
(A) is a non-starter. Of course a senior partner gets paid more than a trainee. That's about experience and rank, which the argument specifically says is a valid reason for different pay.
(E) is tricky, but it's a trap. They work for different companies (Company X vs. Company Z). Company X might just be more profitable and pay all its managers more. You can't prove the pay gap is due to gender when the companies are different.
(B) is just comparing two men. It can't be an example of a gender pay gap if there's no woman involved.
(C) is the same deal, but with two women. The pay difference is because of nepotism (one has an uncle who is a partner), not gender.
Here's why. The whole point of the original argument is that wage gaps are only okay for two reasons: 1) different skills/experience for office jobs, or 2) men doing heavy physical work in labor jobs.
Option (D) is the only one that completely dismantles this. You have a male and a female laborer. Neither is doing any heavy physical work. They are doing the same job, but the man is getting paid more. That's the textbook definition of wage disparity based on gender because the argument's only excuse (physical strength) has been taken away.
Let's look at why the others are wrong:
(A) is a non-starter. Of course a senior partner gets paid more than a trainee. That's about experience and rank, which the argument specifically says is a valid reason for different pay.
(E) is tricky, but it's a trap. They work for different companies (Company X vs. Company Z). Company X might just be more profitable and pay all its managers more. You can't prove the pay gap is due to gender when the companies are different.
(B) is just comparing two men. It can't be an example of a gender pay gap if there's no woman involved.
(C) is the same deal, but with two women. The pay difference is because of nepotism (one has an uncle who is a partner), not gender.
Bunuel
15 Oct 2025, 11:07
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the argument follows that wage disparity based on sex in all the jobs(similar experience and profile) except where physical labor(justified) is required doesn't prevail now.
on the basis we have to find out the case of the gender based wage disparity?
A-discuses the wage disparity on the basis of experience (X)
B & C -discuses the wage disparity between the same sex (X)
D-discuses the wage disparity based on gender but in the labor class, which the argument itself has justified. (X)
E-correctly explains the wage disparity based on gender within the persons in the same profile.(correct)
IMO E
on the basis we have to find out the case of the gender based wage disparity?
A-discuses the wage disparity on the basis of experience (X)
B & C -discuses the wage disparity between the same sex (X)
D-discuses the wage disparity based on gender but in the labor class, which the argument itself has justified. (X)
E-correctly explains the wage disparity based on gender within the persons in the same profile.(correct)
IMO E
