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08 Feb 2012, 21:09
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A basic simple question here.
I have not come across an instructor like XXXXX.
I - is the subject I(Singular)
Why do we then use Have
Obviously
I has not come across an instructor like XXX. does not sound good to the ears.
Any help!
I have not come across an instructor like XXXXX.
I - is the subject I(Singular)
Why do we then use Have
Obviously
I has not come across an instructor like XXX. does not sound good to the ears.
Any help!
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08 Feb 2012, 23:51
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Present perfect tense formation:
I have
He has
she has
They have
I sincerely suggest you to go through the book WREN AND MARTIN and make yourself strong in the fundamentals, it is a prerequisite to do well in english section .
I have
He has
she has
They have
I sincerely suggest you to go through the book WREN AND MARTIN and make yourself strong in the fundamentals, it is a prerequisite to do well in english section .
mourinhogmat1
Joined: 08 Jun 2010
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Concentration: General Management, Finance
Schools: Darden '15 (D) Wharton '15 (D) Johnson '15 (S)
GMAT 1: 680 Q50 V32
09 Feb 2012, 00:21
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It's a valid and a very LOGICAL question.
To answer your question. When using an auxiliary verb with subjects such as I and We one MUST use HAVE asthe helping verb rather than HAS. However, when the subject changes to HE, SHE or any other THIRD PERSON, it goes back to HAS. Its a grammatical rule! Try not to use logic too much in grammar, save it for CR and RC
To answer your question. When using an auxiliary verb with subjects such as I and We one MUST use HAVE asthe helping verb rather than HAS. However, when the subject changes to HE, SHE or any other THIRD PERSON, it goes back to HAS. Its a grammatical rule! Try not to use logic too much in grammar, save it for CR and RC
