Last visit was: 19 Nov 2025, 02:12 It is currently 19 Nov 2025, 02:12
Close
GMAT Club Daily Prep
Thank you for using the timer - this advanced tool can estimate your performance and suggest more practice questions. We have subscribed you to Daily Prep Questions via email.

Customized
for You

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

Track
Your Progress

every week, we’ll send you an estimated GMAT score based on your performance

Practice
Pays

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History
Not interested in getting valuable practice questions and articles delivered to your email? No problem, unsubscribe here.
Close
Request Expert Reply
Confirm Cancel
User avatar
swath20
Joined: 25 Oct 2004
Last visit: 05 Apr 2007
Posts: 141
Own Kudos:
Posts: 141
Kudos: 298
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
User avatar
swath20
Joined: 25 Oct 2004
Last visit: 05 Apr 2007
Posts: 141
Own Kudos:
Posts: 141
Kudos: 298
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
User avatar
Rupstar
Joined: 15 Feb 2005
Last visit: 12 Apr 2007
Posts: 116
Own Kudos:
Location: Rockville
Posts: 116
Kudos: 13
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
User avatar
faizaniftikhar83
Joined: 13 Feb 2005
Last visit: 30 Sep 2006
Posts: 32
Own Kudos:
Location: Lahore, Pakistan
Posts: 32
Kudos: 1
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
22 has 22,44,66,88,110,...
11 even are 22,,66,88,110,...

D
User avatar
MA
Joined: 25 Nov 2004
Last visit: 09 Aug 2011
Posts: 697
Own Kudos:
Posts: 697
Kudos: 515
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
swath20
Even I got D, but OA is B, could somebody explain why B and not D


agreed. that's why i was taking to much time to answer this question because D is obvious answer and a trap. the explanation is that:

from i, refined numbers could be, (suppose n=22), n, 2n, 3n, 4n, 5n, and so on or n, n+220, n+440, n+660, and so on..........

from ii, refined numbers can onlu be 11, 2X11, 3X11, 4X11 and so on.......

if this is the case only B is sufficient to answer ther question.
User avatar
Antmavel
User avatar
Current Student
Joined: 13 Jun 2004
Last visit: 05 Apr 2014
Posts: 581
Own Kudos:
Location: London, UK
Schools:Tuck'08
Posts: 581
Kudos: 134
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
MA
swath20
Even I got D, but OA is B, could somebody explain why B and not D

agreed. that's why i was taking to much time to answer this question because D is obvious answer and a trap. the explanation is that:

from i, refined numbers could be, (suppose =22), n, 2n, 3n, 4n, 5n, and so on or n, n+220, n+440, n+660, and so on..........

from ii, refined numbers can onlu be 11, 2X11, 3X11, 4X11 and so on.......

if this is the case only B is sufficient to answer ther question.


MA, From Statement 2, it can't be 11x3...it can just be 11x2, 11x4, 11x6...always even :wink:

Personally at first time I picked B just because the statement 1 says :
Any "refined" number must be divisible by 22

it doesn't give the definition of a refined number, just tells you that any of them must be divisible by 22. Maybe a refined number is a number divisible by 6 so that 22 would not be a possible refined number but 66 could be...The statement 2 seems more like the official definition of what is a refined number : a "refined" number is any even multiple of 11 so that you can conclude B is sufficient...

that's my feeling :idea:
User avatar
MA
Joined: 25 Nov 2004
Last visit: 09 Aug 2011
Posts: 697
Own Kudos:
Posts: 697
Kudos: 515
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
Antmavel
MA, From Statement 2, it can't be 11x3...it can just be 11x2, 11x4, 11x6...always even :wink:

Personally at first time I picked B just because the statement 1 says :
Any "refined" number must be divisible by 22

it doesn't give the definition of a refined number, just tells you that any of them must be divisible by 22. Maybe a refined number is a number divisible by 6 so that 22 would not be a possible refined number but 66 could be...The statement 2 seems more like the official definition of what is a refined number : a "refined" number is any even multiple of 11 so that you can conclude B is sufficient...

that's my feeling :idea:


from i, refined number could be 22, 220, 440 or all multiples of 22.

from ii, refined numbers are all number that are even multiple of 11 i.e. 11x2n.
User avatar
Antmavel
User avatar
Current Student
Joined: 13 Jun 2004
Last visit: 05 Apr 2014
Posts: 581
Own Kudos:
Location: London, UK
Schools:Tuck'08
Posts: 581
Kudos: 134
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
I didn't understand your previous post MA...however 11*3 as you said before in your first post is not correct, that was my first reaction. It has to be even...

Finally I think the OA should be A, we don't need B. Any number that is divisible by 22 is also an even multiple of 11.
User avatar
mirhaque
Joined: 02 Feb 2004
Last visit: 06 Aug 2008
Posts: 211
Own Kudos:
Posts: 211
Kudos: 255
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
swath20
If a number is drawn at random from the first 1000 positive integers, what is the probability of selecting a "refined" number?

(1) Any "refined" number must be divisible by 22
(2) a "refined" number is any even multiple of 11


Finally I think the OA should be D. Any number that is divisible by 22 is also an even multiple of 11. Therefore, both A & B says the same thing na?
User avatar
nocilis
Joined: 19 Nov 2004
Last visit: 11 Jul 2008
Posts: 274
Own Kudos:
Location: SF Bay Area, USA
Posts: 274
Kudos: 1,539
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
uh ...
This one plays with the definitions. It is a CR question combined with a DS

1)
Any "refined" number must be divisible by 22
does not mean All numbers divisible by 22 is a refined number.

2)
a "refined" number is any even multiple of 11

I think the definition of refined number seems complete here (?).

So B.

What is the source of the question? This is the first time I am encountering such a DS-CR question.
User avatar
nocilis
Joined: 19 Nov 2004
Last visit: 11 Jul 2008
Posts: 274
Own Kudos:
Location: SF Bay Area, USA
Posts: 274
Kudos: 1,539
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
mirhaque,
Even within first 1000 +ve integers, Statement 1 does not mean all n umbers that are divisible by 22 is a refined number.
All it says that any refined number is divisible by 22. There is a big difference between the two.
User avatar
Vijo
Joined: 01 Jan 2005
Last visit: 11 Jul 2005
Posts: 76
Own Kudos:
Location: NJ
Posts: 76
Kudos: 8
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
nocilis
uh ...
This one plays with the definitions. It is a CR question combined with a DS

1)
Any "refined" number must be divisible by 22
does not mean All numbers divisible by 22 is a refined number.

2)
a "refined" number is any even multiple of 11

I think the definition of refined number seems complete here (?).

So B.

What is the source of the question? This is the first time I am encountering such a DS-CR question.



Yes, she is right Statement 1 means that any A is B, which doesn't necessarily mean that any B is also A.
May be according to statement I they are referring to refined nos as nos divisible by 44 or 88 and thus all refined nos will be divisible by 22.

Thus the answer is B.
Tricky language :wink:
User avatar
swath20
Joined: 25 Oct 2004
Last visit: 05 Apr 2007
Posts: 141
Own Kudos:
Posts: 141
Kudos: 298
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
Thanks for your contributions everybody...Was a tricky one....



Archived Topic
Hi there,
This topic has been closed and archived due to inactivity or violation of community quality standards. No more replies are possible here.
Where to now? Join ongoing discussions on thousands of quality questions in our Data Sufficiency (DS) Forum
Still interested in this question? Check out the "Best Topics" block above for a better discussion on this exact question, as well as several more related questions.
Thank you for understanding, and happy exploring!
Moderators:
Math Expert
105379 posts
GMAT Tutor
1924 posts