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If a point is arbitrarily selected on a line segment, thus breaking it [#permalink]
Bunuel wrote:
Bunuel wrote:
If a point is arbitrarily selected on a line segment, thus breaking it into two smaller segments, what is the probability that the larger segment is at least twice as long as the smaller one?

A. \(\frac{1}{4}\)

B. \(\frac{1}{3}\)

C. \(\frac{1}{2}\)

D. \(\frac{2}{3}\)

E. \(\frac{3}{4}\)


M18-10


Check the diagram below:



The larger segment will be at least twice as long as the smaller one if the breaking point is located either in the first third or the last third of the segment. Hence, the probability of this occurring is \(\frac{2}{3}\).

This problem can also be approached algebraically. If we consider the length of the original segment as 1 and the length of the first sub-segment as \(x\), then we are looking for values of \(x\) that satisfy \(\frac{x}{1 - x} \ge 2\) or \(\frac{1 - x}{x} \ge 2\). Solving the first inequality, we get \(x \ge \frac{2}{3}\), and for the second, we find \(x \le \frac{1}{3}\). Therefore, the probability that either \(x \ge \frac{2}{3}\) or \(x \le \frac{1}{3}\) holds is \(\frac{2}{3}\).



Answer: D


Can you please confirm whether my understanding is correct?
When you say that x<=1/3, we cover 1/3rd area of the number line and then when x>=2/3, we cover another 1/3rd area so overall 2/3 probability?
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Re: If a point is arbitrarily selected on a line segment, thus breaking it [#permalink]
Expert Reply
Sonia2023 wrote:
Bunuel wrote:
Bunuel wrote:
If a point is arbitrarily selected on a line segment, thus breaking it into two smaller segments, what is the probability that the larger segment is at least twice as long as the smaller one?

A. \(\frac{1}{4}\)

B. \(\frac{1}{3}\)

C. \(\frac{1}{2}\)

D. \(\frac{2}{3}\)

E. \(\frac{3}{4}\)


M18-10


Check the diagram below:



The larger segment will be at least twice as long as the smaller one if the breaking point is located either in the first third or the last third of the segment. Hence, the probability of this occurring is \(\frac{2}{3}\).

This problem can also be approached algebraically. If we consider the length of the original segment as 1 and the length of the first sub-segment as \(x\), then we are looking for values of \(x\) that satisfy \(\frac{x}{1 - x} \ge 2\) or \(\frac{1 - x}{x} \ge 2\). Solving the first inequality, we get \(x \ge \frac{2}{3}\), and for the second, we find \(x \le \frac{1}{3}\). Therefore, the probability that either \(x \ge \frac{2}{3}\) or \(x \le \frac{1}{3}\) holds is \(\frac{2}{3}\).



Answer: D


Can you please confirm whether my understanding is correct?
When you say that x<=1/3, we cover 1/3rd area of the number line and then when x>=2/3, we cover another 1/3rd area so overall 2/3 probability?

____________________
Yes, that's correct.
GMAT Club Bot
Re: If a point is arbitrarily selected on a line segment, thus breaking it [#permalink]
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