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cavana
Joined: 20 Jan 2017
Last visit: 20 Jun 2018
Posts: 33
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 15
Location: United States (NY)
Schools: CBS '20 (A)
GMAT 1: 610 Q34 V41
GMAT 2: 750 Q48 V44
GPA: 3.92
Products:
30 Jan 2017, 04:51
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1) First of all we need to set up an equation for w women and find the rate for each woman: \(w*r*d=1; r=\frac{1}{wd}\)
2) Now let's set up an equation for (w+n) women: \((w+n)*\frac{1}{wd}*T=1; T=\frac{1}{(w+n)/wd}=\frac{wd}{w+n}\)
2) Now let's set up an equation for (w+n) women: \((w+n)*\frac{1}{wd}*T=1; T=\frac{1}{(w+n)/wd}=\frac{wd}{w+n}\)
01 Feb 2017, 09:17
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mendelay
We are given that w women can do a job in d days. Thus, the rate of the w women is 1/d.
Next we need to determine the rate of (w + n) women. To calculate that rate, we can use the following proportion in which the value in each numerator is the number of women and the value in each denominator is the corresponding rate, and we can let r = the rate of the (w + n) women:
w/(1/d) = (w+n)/r
dw = (w+n)/r
dwr = (w + n)
r = (w + n)/dw
Finally, we need to determine the time it will take (w+n) women to complete 1 job. Since time = work/rate, we can create the following equation:
time = 1/[(w + n)/dw]
time = dw/(w + n)
Answer: A
02 Apr 2017, 11:46
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M1D1=M2D2
w*d=(w+n)*D2
D2=wd/(w+n)
M=no of women
D= no of days
Posted from my mobile device
w*d=(w+n)*D2
D2=wd/(w+n)
M=no of women
D= no of days
Posted from my mobile device
