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If x is not equal to y, does x/(y-x) = 1?

Is \(\frac{x}{y-x}=1\)? --> is \(x=y-x\)? --> is \(2x=y\)?

(1) |x| = x - y --> if \(x<0\) then \(-x=x-y\) --> \(2x=y\), so in this case the answer is YES but if \(x\geq{0}\) then \(x=x-y\) --> \(y=0\), and since \(x\neq{y}\) (given) then \(2x\neq{y}\), so in this case the answer is NO (if \(y=0\) then in order \(2x=y\) to hold true \(x\) must also be 0, but we are told that \(x\neq{y}\) so if \(y=0\) then \(2x=y\) is not possible). Not sufficient.

(2) x^3 < 0 --> \(x<0\). No info about \(y\). Not sufficient.

(1)+(2) Since from (2) \(x<0\) then we have the first case from (1) \(2x=y\). Sufficient.

Answer: C.

Hi Bunuel
A fundamental doubt:

Statement 1 gives two possibilities - either y =0 or y=2x.
If y=0, then x has to be equal to y, which is forbidden as per the question.
So y has to be 2x.
By this, Can't we not assume statement 1 is sufficient?

Yes, from (1) we get either y = 0 when x ≥ 0 or y = 2x when x < 0.

The y = 0 scenario occurs when x ≥ 0, however, this scenario does not necessarily imply that x = y = 0. For example, consider y = 0 and x = 2: |x| = x - y holds, while x/(y - x) = 1 is not true. Hence, when x ≥ 0, then the answer to the question is NO.

Hope it's clear.
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Can we multiply (y-x) without even knowing weather this gives positive or netgative to 1
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Can we multiply (y-x) without even knowing weather this gives positive or netgative to 1

In an equation, you can multiply regardless of the sign. The sign matters in inequalities, where it can affect the inequality's direction.
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