Last visit was: 19 Nov 2025, 10:51 It is currently 19 Nov 2025, 10:51
Close
GMAT Club Daily Prep
Thank you for using the timer - this advanced tool can estimate your performance and suggest more practice questions. We have subscribed you to Daily Prep Questions via email.

Customized
for You

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

Track
Your Progress

every week, we’ll send you an estimated GMAT score based on your performance

Practice
Pays

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History
Not interested in getting valuable practice questions and articles delivered to your email? No problem, unsubscribe here.
Close
Request Expert Reply
Confirm Cancel
User avatar
ScottTargetTestPrep
User avatar
Target Test Prep Representative
Joined: 14 Oct 2015
Last visit: 19 Nov 2025
Posts: 21,716
Own Kudos:
26,996
 [1]
Given Kudos: 300
Status:Founder & CEO
Affiliations: Target Test Prep
Location: United States (CA)
Expert
Expert reply
Active GMAT Club Expert! Tag them with @ followed by their username for a faster response.
Posts: 21,716
Kudos: 26,996
 [1]
1
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
User avatar
hudacse6
Joined: 16 Dec 2018
Last visit: 12 Aug 2025
Posts: 59
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 48
Location: Bangladesh
Concentration: Technology, Marketing
WE:Web Development (Technology)
Posts: 59
Kudos: 145
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
User avatar
EMPOWERgmatRichC
User avatar
Major Poster
Joined: 19 Dec 2014
Last visit: 31 Dec 2023
Posts: 21,784
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 450
Status:GMAT Assassin/Co-Founder
Affiliations: EMPOWERgmat
Location: United States (CA)
GMAT 1: 800 Q51 V49
GRE 1: Q170 V170
Expert
Expert reply
GMAT 1: 800 Q51 V49
GRE 1: Q170 V170
Posts: 21,784
Kudos: 12,806
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
User avatar
CrackverbalGMAT
User avatar
Major Poster
Joined: 03 Oct 2013
Last visit: 19 Nov 2025
Posts: 4,844
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 225
Affiliations: CrackVerbal
Location: India
Expert
Expert reply
Posts: 4,844
Kudos: 8,945
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
Concept: The question deal with Minima/Maxima problem


Solution:-


Let there be w women


=>No of men =200-w


25% of women =0.25 w are home owners


Also, 20% of men = 0.2(200-w) are home owners


Thus 0.25w + 0.2(200-w) = 0.05w + 40 =w/20 + 40


We have to minimize this equation =>w has to be minimized


Minimum value of w for which w/20 is an integer(as number of women as homeowners cannot be a non-integer) = 20


So, at w=20, w/20 +40 =41 (option e)

Devmitra Sen
GMAT SME

User avatar
kskumar
Joined: 28 Jan 2020
Last visit: 12 Mar 2022
Posts: 20
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 361
Status:Product Manager
Location: India
Concentration: Technology, Marketing
GPA: 3
WE:Business Development (Telecommunications)
Posts: 20
Kudos: 7
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
can anyone explain the Through Weighted Avg Method?


as per my knowledge Taking extremes of Homeowners of the ratio that they have given Homeowners 5:4 -TOTAL OF 9

Taking extremes 36-------x--------45

and avg comes around 40.5 so we can solve as above to get the answer to Option (E)- 41

avigutman VeritasKarishma
User avatar
avigutman
Joined: 17 Jul 2019
Last visit: 30 Sep 2025
Posts: 1,293
Own Kudos:
1,931
 [1]
Given Kudos: 66
Location: Canada
GMAT 1: 780 Q51 V45
GMAT 2: 780 Q50 V47
GMAT 3: 770 Q50 V45
Expert
Expert reply
GMAT 3: 770 Q50 V45
Posts: 1,293
Kudos: 1,931
 [1]
1
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
kskumar
can anyone explain the Through Weighted Avg Method?


as per my knowledge Taking extremes of Homeowners of the ratio that they have given Homeowners 5:4 -TOTAL OF 9

Taking extremes 36-------x--------45

and avg comes around 40.5 so we can solve as above to get the answer to Option (E)- 41

avigutman VeritasKarishma

You're right that we can solve this using a weighted average, kskumar!
Your approach isn't quite right, though. They have not given us a ratio of 5:4.
They have given us a ratio of 1:5 (where 5 ratio units represents the total number of men in the association) and a ratio of 1:4 (where 4 ratio units represent the total number of women in the association). Adding the 5 ratio units and the 4 ratio units is where you went wrong. These ratios may have different scale factors, so you can't add them. What you could do, though, if you wanted to, is infer that the number of men is some positive multiple of 5 and the number of women is some positive multiple of 4.

Now, as for solving this problem using weighted average thinking: if all 200 people were men, there would be 40 homeowners, and if all 200 people were women, there would be 50 homeowners. Therefore, the actual number of homeowners must be one of the integers inside that range, exclusive (why exclusive? because the question is nonsensical if there are only members of one gender). Now that we know the number of owners is at least 41 and at most 49, we can answer the question with ease.
User avatar
ashdank94
Joined: 20 Feb 2023
Last visit: 19 Sep 2024
Posts: 38
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 128
Posts: 38
Kudos: 23
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
Bunuel

nades09
In a 200 member association consisting of men and women, exactly 20% of men and exactly 25 % women are homeowners. What is the least number of members who are homeowners?

A) 49
B) 47
c) 45
D) 43
E) 41

Please explain

Thanks
NAD

Let the # of women be \(w\), then # of men will be \(200-w\). We want to minimize \(0.25w+0.2(200-w)\) --> \(0.25w+0.2(200-w)=0.05w+40=\frac{w}{20}+40\), so we should minimize \(w\), but also we should make sure that \(\frac{w}{20}+40\) remains an integer (as it represent # of people). Min value of \(w\) for which w/20 is an integer is for \(w=20\) --> \(\frac{w}{20}+40=1+40=41\).

Answer: E.

Or: as there are bigger percentage of homeowner women then we should minimize # of women, but we should ensure that \(\frac{1}{4}*w\) and \(\frac{1}{5}*(200-w)\) are integers. So \(w\) should be min multiple of 4 for which \(200-w\) is a multiple of 5 (basically w should be min positive multiple of 20), which turns out to be for \(w=20\).

Hope it's clear.
­Bunuel what if you took women to be 200 - m? I don't get the same answer
User avatar
Bunuel
User avatar
Math Expert
Joined: 02 Sep 2009
Last visit: 19 Nov 2025
Posts: 105,390
Own Kudos:
778,306
 [1]
Given Kudos: 99,977
Products:
Expert
Expert reply
Active GMAT Club Expert! Tag them with @ followed by their username for a faster response.
Posts: 105,390
Kudos: 778,306
 [1]
1
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
ashdank94

Bunuel

nades09
In a 200 member association consisting of men and women, exactly 20% of men and exactly 25 % women are homeowners. What is the least number of members who are homeowners?

A) 49
B) 47
c) 45
D) 43
E) 41

Please explain

Thanks
NAD
Let the # of women be \(w\), then # of men will be \(200-w\). We want to minimize \(0.25w+0.2(200-w)\) --> \(0.25w+0.2(200-w)=0.05w+40=\frac{w}{20}+40\), so we should minimize \(w\), but also we should make sure that \(\frac{w}{20}+40\) remains an integer (as it represent # of people). Min value of \(w\) for which w/20 is an integer is for \(w=20\) --> \(\frac{w}{20}+40=1+40=41\).

Answer: E.

Or: as there are bigger percentage of homeowner women then we should minimize # of women, but we should ensure that \(\frac{1}{4}*w\) and \(\frac{1}{5}*(200-w)\) are integers. So \(w\) should be min multiple of 4 for which \(200-w\) is a multiple of 5 (basically w should be min positive multiple of 20), which turns out to be for \(w=20\).

Hope it's clear.
­Bunuel what if you took women to be 200 - m? I don't get the same answer
\(0.25(200-m)+0.2m=50 - \frac{ m}{20}\).

To minimize the above, we should maximize m. The maximum value of m, for which m/20 is an integer is m =180. In this case:

\(50 - \frac{180}{20} = 41\).




 ­
User avatar
KarishmaB
Joined: 16 Oct 2010
Last visit: 19 Nov 2025
Posts: 16,267
Own Kudos:
76,997
 [1]
Given Kudos: 482
Location: Pune, India
Expert
Expert reply
Active GMAT Club Expert! Tag them with @ followed by their username for a faster response.
Posts: 16,267
Kudos: 76,997
 [1]
1
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
nades09
In a 200 member association consisting of men and women, exactly 20% of men and exactly 25 % women are homeowners. What is the least number of members who are homeowners?

A. 49
B. 47
C. 45
D. 43
E. 41

There are many ways to solve this question. One of the most efficient would be to use integer solutions method since number of men and women have to be integers.

Method 1:

To minimize the number of homeowners, we must make the number of men as large as possible since only 20% of those are homeowners. Of the rest, 25% will be homeowners.

Since 20% of men are homeowners, it means the total number of men is a multiple of 5 (because 1/5 of men are homeowners which must be an integer). So say number of men = 5a
Since 25% of women are homeowners, it means the total number of women is a multiple of 4 (because 1/4 of women are homeowners which must be an integer). So say number of women = 4b

5a + 4b = 200

To minimize the number of homeowners, we must make the 5a group (number of men) as large as possible.

The first and simplest solution would be b = 0, a = 40. But this means there are no women and we must have men and women.
So next possible solution is b = 5, a = 36.

This minimizes the number of homeowners as 36 + 5 = 41

Answer (E)

Integer solutions to equations in 2 variables are discussed here: https://anaprep.com/algebra-integer-sol ... variables/

Method 2:

You can do the same thing orally also. To minimize the number of homeowners, we must make the number of men as large as possible since only 20% of those are homeowners. Of the rest, 25% will be homeowners.
So we start with taking all 200 as men. But we must have some women too so we check whether 4 women are possible. No because that gives us 196 men which is not divisible by 5. Then check whether 8 women are possible. No.
Since number of men must be divisible by 5, we can have at most 180 men which gives us 20 women.

Number of homeowners = 180/4 + 20/5 = 41
User avatar
Arunav1311
Joined: 27 Apr 2025
Last visit: 19 Nov 2025
Posts: 1
Given Kudos: 3
Posts: 1
Kudos: 0
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
out of 200
20 percent men = 40
25 percent women = 50
90 Homeowners
So for least use weighed balance 40 Least 41 50
Hence 41 ( Also overlapping sets concept can be used)
User avatar
Ilanchezhiyan
Joined: 09 Feb 2024
Last visit: 19 Nov 2025
Posts: 101
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 159
Posts: 101
Kudos: 21
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
sir, I took the opposite values for men and women. Men as X and women as 200-x, and I got 49. Where did I go wrong?
Bunuel



Let the # of women be \(w\), then # of men will be \(200-w\). We want to minimize \(0.25w+0.2(200-w)\) --> \(0.25w+0.2(200-w)=0.05w+40=\frac{w}{20}+40\), so we should minimize \(w\), but also we should make sure that \(\frac{w}{20}+40\) remains an integer (as it represent # of people). Min value of \(w\) for which w/20 is an integer is for \(w=20\) --> \(\frac{w}{20}+40=1+40=41\).

Answer: E.

Or: as there are bigger percentage of homeowner women then we should minimize # of women, but we should ensure that \(\frac{1}{4}*w\) and \(\frac{1}{5}*(200-w)\) are integers. So \(w\) should be min multiple of 4 for which \(200-w\) is a multiple of 5 (basically w should be min positive multiple of 20), which turns out to be for \(w=20\).

Hope it's clear.
User avatar
Bunuel
User avatar
Math Expert
Joined: 02 Sep 2009
Last visit: 19 Nov 2025
Posts: 105,390
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 99,977
Products:
Expert
Expert reply
Active GMAT Club Expert! Tag them with @ followed by their username for a faster response.
Posts: 105,390
Kudos: 778,306
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
Ilanchezhiyan
sir, I took the opposite values for men and women. Men as X and women as 200-x, and I got 49. Where did I go wrong?


Please read the whole thread. Your doubt has already been addressed there!
   1   2 
Moderators:
Math Expert
105390 posts
Tuck School Moderator
805 posts