kevincan
In a sequence of integers, \(a_1 = 40\) and \(a_n < a_{n-1}\) for all integers \(n > 1\).
From which of the following can it be concluded that \(a_{20}\) is positive?
I. \(a_{25} = \frac{a_{24}}{2}\)
II. The sum of the first 42 terms is positive.
III. \(a_{29} > a_{27} - a_{28}\)
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and III
(E) I, II, and III
\(a_n < a_{n-1}\) for all integers \(n > 1\). This means every term is smaller than the previous term. The first term is 40, a positive number. The moment a term goes negative, all subsequent terms will also go negative.
From which of the following can it be concluded that \(a_{20}\) is positive?
I. \(a_{25} = \frac{a_{24}}{2}\)We know that \(a_{25} < a_{24}\). If \(a_{25} = \frac{a_{24}}{2}\), then \(a_{24}\) must be positive. Had it been negative, then its half cannot be a smaller value. e.g.
If \(a_{24} = 10\), then \(\frac{a_{24}}{2} = \frac{10}{2} = 5\) (smaller value)
But if \(a_{24} = -10\), then \(\frac{a_{24}}{2} = \frac{-10}{2} = -5\) (greater value)
Hence \(a_{24}\) must be positive. Which means that \(a_{20}\) must be positive. Had \(a_{20}\) been negative, every subsequent value including \(a_{24}\) would have been negative.
Hence, \(a_{20}\) is positive.
II. The sum of the first 42 terms is positive.No idea about \(a_{20}\). It could be positive or negative. There needn't be any relation between subsequent terms of a sequence.
The terms could be
40, 39, 30, 29, 20.5, ... \(a_{20}=2\), 0, -1, - 1.1, -1.2, -1.3 ...
or
40, 39, 38, 37, -1, ... \(a_{20}=-2\), -2.1, -2.2, -2.3 ...
III. \(a_{29} > a_{27} - a_{28}\)We know that \(a_{28} < a_{27}\)
This means \(a_{27} - a_{28}\) is positive which means \(a_{29}\) is positive. So \(a_{20}\) must be positive too. Had \(a_{20}\) been negative, every subsequent value including \(a_{29}\) would have been negative.
Hence, \(a_{20}\) is positive
Answer (D)