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Re: In feudal Europe, urban areas developed from clusters of houses where [#permalink]
AnthonyRitz

Thanks a lot for a swift, elaborate and insightful reply :) I understand my assumption was incorrect, as "homesteading policies" isnt a verbal that would modify a noun close to it. I will focus more on definite errors than nitpicking benign perceived errors.
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Re: In feudal Europe, urban areas developed from clusters of houses where [#permalink]
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InLimbo wrote:
AnthonyRitz

Thanks a lot for a swift, elaborate and insightful reply :) I understand my assumption was incorrect, as "homesteading policies" isnt a verbal that would modify a noun close to it. I will focus more on definite errors than nitpicking benign perceived errors.


No problem!

Yes, "homesteading" is a verbal. It's a participle. But "policies" is a noun, and "homesteading" just modifies "policies"; "policies," in turn, does not modify anything.
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Re: In feudal Europe, urban areas developed from clusters of houses where [#permalink]
I got to the right answer by comparison.But can someone explain the paralleslism in b. With "and" present how is the ||ism working?
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Re: In feudal Europe, urban areas developed from clusters of houses where [#permalink]
TBT wrote:
I got to the right answer by comparison.But can someone explain the paralleslism in b. With "and" present how is the ||ism working?


Quote:
In feudal Europe, urban areas developed from clusters of houses where peasants lived and from which they commuted to farmlands in the countryside [...]


In this answer, the words after the "and" are "from which." It's a bit tricky, because "from" is a preposition but "which" is a relative pronoun. It's also worth noting that the following words "they commuted" are a subject and a verb.

So when we read backwards from the "and," we need to hit the relative clause most of all, and we do so when we reach "where peasants lived"; that's your parallel element.

It would be easy to miss this and keep going back to "from clusters of houses," but this prepositional phrase lacks the relative pronoun, subject, and verb, plus it's simply farther away, so it can't really be the parallel element we need.

The correct structure looks a bit like this:

Quote:
In feudal Europe, urban areas developed from clusters of houses

(1) where peasants lived
and
(2) from which they commuted to farmlands in the countryside
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In feudal Europe, urban areas developed from clusters of houses where [#permalink]
Hi Anythony - brilliant insights on this question.

Two Quick follow-ups

AnthonyRitz wrote:
"Structurally, "urban areas developed" is noun, verb, as is "homesteading policies required," so the grammatical parallelism continues to be perfect ..


Per the red, how were you so sure that "Developed" was a verb in the case of (B) ? I was struggling to figure out if Developed was a verb or a past participle ?

One way I use normally is to ask myself -- can

(1) "Developed" be performed by the subject

OR

(2) is "Developed" being performed on the subject

If (1) - "Developed" is a verb
If (2) - "Developed" is a past participle

Is this how do you think about it ?

If so, i thought (2) made MORE SENSE as "Developed" is being performed on the subject.

How can the subject -- perform the verb ""Developed" by itself (how can urban areas get up on their own and develop on their own)

Hence i thought "Developed" was a past participle and not a regular verb
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In feudal Europe, urban areas developed from clusters of houses where [#permalink]
2nd follow-up

AnthonyRitz wrote:

A, C, and D create a logic error with a bad list: "houses where peasants lived and commuted to farmlands" says that the peasants commuted at their houses. But of course they commuted from their houses to the farmlands -- it doesn't make any sense to commute at one's home.


I am not sure I agree on the red. Didn't think that was the literal meaning of the list in A,C, and D.

Here is the sentence (I assumed the verb - Commuted is part of the Y phrase, within the parallelism)

clusters of houses where peasants
(1) lived
and
(2) commuted to farmlands in the countryside

I didn't think you need to write "From".

Example
(1) I live in Hollywood boulevard. Daily, I commute from home to work
OR
(2) I live in Hollywood boulevard. Daily, I commute to work

The 2nd sentence, from the context - the "From" can be completely dropped. I thought the same thing was going on in (a),(c), (d)

The "From" is implied based on the context.

Originally posted by jabhatta2 on 15 Jan 2023, 19:24.
Last edited by jabhatta2 on 15 Jan 2023, 19:31, edited 4 times in total.
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Re: In feudal Europe, urban areas developed from clusters of houses where [#permalink]
jabhatta2 wrote:
Hi Anythony - brilliant insights on this question.

Two Quick follow-ups

AnthonyRitz wrote:
"Structurally, "urban areas developed" is noun, verb, as is "homesteading policies required," so the grammatical parallelism continues to be perfect ..


Per the red, how were you so sure that "Developed" was a verb in the case of (B) ? I was struggling to figure out if Developed was a verb or a past participle ?

One way I use normally is to ask myself -- can

(1) "Developed" be performed by the subject

OR

(2) is "Developed" being performed on the subject

If (1) - "Developed" is a verb
If (2) - "Developed" is a past participle

Is this how do you think about it ?

If so, i thought (2) made MORE SENSE as "Developed" is being performed on the subject.

How can the subject -- perform the verb ""Developed" by itself (how can urban areas get up on their own and develop on their own)

Hence i thought "Developed" was a past participle and not a regular verb


More good questions!

A verbal with "-ed" or irregular ending can be

(1) an active voice past tense verb,
(2) a passive verb with a helping "is,"
or
(3) a passive participle.


Since there's no helping "is," we're looking at either an active verb or a passive participle. Usually, just thinking about whether the subject is doing the action or having the action done to it is enough to settle the question.

Unfortunately, in this case, it is not clear whether the urban areas "developed" of their own accord or whether they were "developed" by someone or something else (perhaps "clusters of houses"?).

So we go at it a different way, considering the structural elements of the sentence. In particular, every sentence (and every independent clause) must contain a main verb that is not contained within any modifier. Also, every relative clause must have its own verb. So if "developed" isn't a verb in this sentence, what is?

Quote:
In feudal Europe, urban areas developed from clusters of houses where peasants lived and from which they commuted to farmlands in the countryside [...]


"lived" is a verb, but it follows the relative pronoun "where" -- it's the verb of the relative clause "where peasants lived" and cannot be the main verb we're looking for.
"commuted" is a verb, but it follows the relative pronoun "which" -- it's the verb of the relative clause "from which they commuted" and also cannot be the main verb we're looking for.

And then we hit "..., but in the American West homesteading policies required..." And note the "comma + conjunction" structure here; this is a new independent clause. So it's too late for us to find our verb past this point.

By simple process of elimination, "developed" must be the main verb we're looking for.

Now, while this might seem a bit odd, there's nothing really wrong with using the verb in the active sense in this sentence. (In fact, it's the sort of thing we say all the time.) We're saying that the "urban areas" seemingly developed of their own accord, as a sort of organic process. Certainly, we're suggesting that no particular actor(s) can claim responsibility for these developments, and no such responsibility is attributed by this sentence. Maybe the urban areas don't technically have agency, but it sure seems like they do. As such, the active sense of "urban areas developed" is fine.
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jabhatta2 wrote:
AnthonyRitz wrote:

A, C, and D create a logic error with a bad list: "houses where peasants lived and commuted to farmlands" says that the peasants commuted at their houses. But of course they commuted from their houses to the farmlands -- it doesn't make any sense to commute at one's home.


I am not sure I agree on the red. Didn't think that was the literal meaning of the list in A,C, and D.

Here is the sentence

clusters of houses where peasants
(1) lived and
(2) commuted to farmlands in the countryside

I didn't think you need the "From".


We may have to agree to disagree here.

Quote:
(2) I live in Hollywood boulevard. Daily, I commute to work


This is fine, but you're not saying that your home is "where you commute to work." So this example sentence is a bad analogy. (The "where" is a bigger deal than you're recognizing.)

Again, you can certainly commute to work "from" your home in Hollywood, but you cannot commute to work "at" your home in Hollywood, unless you work at your home (and... uh... "commute" from one room to another when it's time to work? ...or perhaps commute from elsewhere to work at your home?).
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In feudal Europe, urban areas developed from clusters of houses where [#permalink]
Hi AnthonyRitz – thank you for the responses.

AnthonyRitz wrote:
So we go at it a different way, considering the structural elements of the sentence. In particular, every sentence (and every independent clause) must contain a main verb that is not contained within any modifier. Also, every relative clause must have its own verb. So if "developed" isn't a verb in this sentence, what is?



I eliminated (B) because I thought (B) had NO VERB 😊

I thought developed could very well be a passive past participle and (B) was constructed in a way that (B) had NO regular verb.

Not having a regular verb is one way a sentence could be wrong and I thought (B) just did not have a regular verb, eliminating (b).

AnthonyRitz wrote:

A verbal with "-ed" or irregular ending can be

(1) an active voice past tense verb,
(2) a passive verb with a helping "is,"
or
(3) a passive participle.



This list really helps !

Just out of curiosity, is there a way for one to be 100 % sure (based on some rule or grammar principle perhaps? ) that “Developed” is NOT passive participle ?
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Re: In feudal Europe, urban areas developed from clusters of houses where [#permalink]
jabhatta2 wrote:
Hi AnthonyRitz – thank you for the responses.

AnthonyRitz wrote:
So we go at it a different way, considering the structural elements of the sentence. In particular, every sentence (and every independent clause) must contain a main verb that is not contained within any modifier. Also, every relative clause must have its own verb. So if "developed" isn't a verb in this sentence, what is?



I eliminated (B) because I thought (B) had NO VERB 😊

I thought developed could very well be a passive past participle and (B) was constructed in a way that (B) had NO regular verb.

Not having a regular verb is one way a sentence could be wrong and I thought (B) just did not have a regular verb, eliminating (b).

AnthonyRitz wrote:

A verbal with "-ed" or irregular ending can be

(1) an active voice past tense verb,
(2) a passive verb with a helping "is,"
or
(3) a passive participle.



This list really helps !

Just out of curiosity, is there a way for one to be 100 % sure (based on some rule or grammar principle perhaps? ) that “Developed” is NOT passive participle ?


The thing is, if "developed" can function both grammatically and logically as the main verb in the sentence, there's no reason to treat "developed" as a participle and then eliminate this answer choice as a fragment. Having exactly one valid way to read a sentence is a good thing, not a bad thing.

As far as making this determination, I'm pretty sure the analysis I did above is basically the only way to know for certain.
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AnthonyRitz wrote:
jabhatta2 wrote:
Hi AnthonyRitz – thank you for the responses.

AnthonyRitz wrote:
So we go at it a different way, considering the structural elements of the sentence. In particular, every sentence (and every independent clause) must contain a main verb that is not contained within any modifier. Also, every relative clause must have its own verb. So if "developed" isn't a verb in this sentence, what is?



I eliminated (B) because I thought (B) had NO VERB 😊

I thought developed could very well be a passive past participle and (B) was constructed in a way that (B) had NO regular verb.

Not having a regular verb is one way a sentence could be wrong and I thought (B) just did not have a regular verb, eliminating (b).

AnthonyRitz wrote:

A verbal with "-ed" or irregular ending can be

(1) an active voice past tense verb,
(2) a passive verb with a helping "is,"
or
(3) a passive participle.



This list really helps !

Just out of curiosity, is there a way for one to be 100 % sure (based on some rule or grammar principle perhaps? ) that “Developed” is NOT passive participle ?


The thing is, if "developed" can function both grammatically and logically as the main verb in the sentence, there's no reason to treat "developed" as a participle and then eliminate this answer choice as a fragment. Having exactly one valid way to read a sentence is a good thing, not a bad thing.

As far as making this determination, I'm pretty sure the analysis I did above is basically the only way to know for certain.


Thank you so much AnthonyRitz

I maybe am doing something that is not helpful for the purposes of SC

I tried to crate a take-away in the form of a grammar rule -

My initial take-away thought Developed CAN NEVER be (#2) or (#3) because I read that Developed is an intransitive verb.

So I thought intransitive verbs can never never be (#2) and (#3)

But now, I am not sure because I just created Passive tenses and Past participle adjectives out of a intransitive verb

Active – Past tense: Germany developed from nothing
Active – Past progressive tense: Germany was developing
Passive Past tense: Germany was developed by USA
Passive past participle : Germany developed by USA is a great country
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Re: In feudal Europe, urban areas developed from clusters of houses where [#permalink]
Its a comparison que- We need to understand what is exact comparison- Its not comparison between urban areas generally and the American West. The sentence highlights the difference between the development of urban areas in feudal Europe and the American West in the context of homesteading policies.
In feudal Europe: Urban areas evolved from clusters of houses where peasants lived. These clusters were typically located within or near the cities, and the peasants would commute to work in the farmlands located in the countryside. In this system, people lived in urban centers but worked on rural farmlands.
In the American West: Homesteading policies were established to encourage settlement and development in the western territories of the United States. To obtain eventual ownership of the land, settlers were required to live and develop the land itself. This meant that they had to reside on the property they were claiming and make improvements to it over time.

So the key distinction here is that in feudal Europe, people lived in urban centers and worked in rural areas, while in the American West, homesteaders had to live on the land they were claiming to eventually gain ownership rights. The two systems reflect different approaches to land use and development in their respective historical contexts. B is only option which is comparing both things properly. (Logic is best approach here).
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In feudal Europe, urban areas developed from clusters of houses where peasants lived and commuted to farmlands in the countryside, unlike homesteading policies in the American West that required residency on the land itself in order to obtain eventual ownership.

Option elimination - (AnthonyRitz has explained pretty well)

(A) In feudal Europe, urban areas developed from clusters of houses where peasants lived and commuted to farmlands in the countryside, unlike homesteading policies in the American West - "Unlike" is a comparison marker. We need parallelism. But here, before "unlike," we have a clause with a Subject and a verb, but after "unlike," we just have a Noun. Also, with a comparison marker, we need parallel elements - here, Urban areas are compared with homesteading policies. - wrong

(B) In feudal Europe, urban areas developed from clusters of houses where peasants lived and from which they commuted to farmlands in the countryside, but in the American West, homesteading policies - There is no comparison word here. We don't need parallelism. We have two independent clauses with a coordinating conjunction, "but." Here we have Subject (areas) verb (developed)...., but(Coordinating conjunction) ..policies (subject) required (verb).....
Yes, if we get into this trap of assuming from option A, the comparison marker, and find urban areas COMPARISON with homesteading policies weird - we already are trapped as there is no COMPARISON here—just plain IC, CC, IC. That is a good trap by GMAT, and let's solve more such problems to get accustomed to such traps so that we can avoid them in the future.

(C) Unlike feudal Europe where urban areas developed from clusters of houses where peasants lived and commuted to farmlands in the countryside, the American West's homesteading policies - We have a comparison marker, so we need parallelism in structure and elements.
Structurally - Feudal Europe (noun). "Where" introduces a relative clause (Relative clauses are typically introduced by a relative pronoun or a relative adverb. Relative pronouns include: "Who, "Whom, "Which, "Whose, "That. Relative adverbs include: "When, "Where, "Why)—homesteading policies (noun) required (verb).
So the structure is
Feudal Europe (noun), homesteading policies (noun) required (verb). There is no main verb in the first part.
Comparison from the element's perspective is also terrible - Feudal Europe is compared with homesteading policies. - Wrong structurally and element-wise.

(D) Unlike feudal Europe where urban areas developed from clusters of houses where peasants lived and commuted to farmlands in the countryside, the homesteading policies of the American West - same as D.

(E) Urban areas developed from clusters of houses where peasants lived from which they commuted to farmlands in the countryside in feudal Europe, unlike the American West where homesteading policies. With a comparison marker, we need a structural and element-wise comparison.
Here, the structure is
Urban areas (subject) developed (verb), unlike the American West (subject)....where introduces a relative clause. So "required" is no longer a main verb in the 2nd part. It is part of the relative clause. So, the structure is
Urban areas (subject) developed (verb), unlike the American West (subject) - no main verb is the 2nd part.
From the elements perspective, comparing Urban areas with the American West is okay. But the other problem is that these urban areas can be anywhere, so in option B, a prepositional modifier "in Federal Europe" is good to qualify that we are talking about urban areas in Federal Europe.
Moreover, "and" is missing before "from" in "where peasants lived from which they commuted."
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