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# In the seventh century B.C., the Roman alphabet was

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In the seventh century B.C., the Roman alphabet was [#permalink]

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09 Sep 2015, 13:36
7
15
00:00

Difficulty:

5% (low)

Question Stats:

85% (00:47) correct 15% (00:52) wrong based on 1888 sessions

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In the seventh century B.C., the Roman alphabet was adapted from the Etruscan alphabet, which in turn had been adapted in the previous century from a western Greek alphabet, which itself had been adapted earlier in the same century from the Phoenician alphabet.

D. having been earlier adapted itself
E. earlier itself having been adapted

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Re: In the seventh century B.C., the Roman alphabet was [#permalink]

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09 Sep 2015, 13:52
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In the seventh century B.C., the Roman alphabet was adapted from the Etruscan alphabet, which in turn had been adapted in the previous century from a western Greek alphabet, which itself had been adapted earlier in the same century from the Phoenician alphabet.

D. having been earlier adapted itself
E. earlier itself having been adapted

Since the adaption event happened way back in the past, there is no place for present or present continuous or present perfect tense.
only A satisfies the criteria of past perfect tense.
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Re: In the seventh century B.C., the Roman alphabet was [#permalink]

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09 Sep 2015, 19:29
there are 2 "had done" and 1 "did"

this is the pattern to learn though gmat will not test us
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Re: In the seventh century B.C., the Roman alphabet was [#permalink]

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31 Jul 2016, 15:17
Hi!
Experts, kindly jump in for the review and analysis please.
chetan4u , egmat, magoosh , daagh
between A & B
I picked B solely avoiding A because A was having WHICH... again refeerring to that alphabet.. and I assumed needed some ING modifier.
Thanks
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Re: In the seventh century B.C., the Roman alphabet was [#permalink]

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17 Oct 2016, 07:15
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The key to solve is understanding "the sequence of events" and "the verb tenses"

In the seventh century B.C., the Roman alphabet was adapted from the Etruscan alphabet, [event 1]
which in turn had been adapted in the previous century from a western Greek alphabet, [event 2]
which itself had been adapted earlier in the same century from the Phoenician alphabet. [event 3]

From the meaning we can understand that
Sequence: "event 1" happened after "event 2" happened after "event 3"
Tenses: "past" > "past perfect" > "past perfect"

Since "had been (past perfect)" is used (non-underlined) for event 2, we should use "had been (past perfect)" for event 3.
(though usage of "had been" for event 2 and event 3 are not necessary as the timelines [centuries before/after] are clearly provided)

- maintains the correct tense for the correct sequence
- "adapting" makes event 3 as modifier to event 2
- missing correct clause connector (which/that/whose/etc). "being adapted" is past tense, we should use only past perfect tense
D. having been earlier adapted itself
- "having" makes event 3 as modifier to event 2
E. earlier itself having been adapted
- missing correct clause connector (which/that/whose/etc). "having been adapted" is past tense, we should use only past perfect tense

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Re: In the seventh century B.C., the Roman alphabet was [#permalink]

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15 Jul 2017, 02:43
I hardly expect such grammar structure will appear in real gmat. Fortunately, there is a key word here; that is, "earlier" indicates a past perfect tense. Nevertheless, I have a question. The time sequel is clear "1 century earlier", so past tense can be used? Here, there is no past tense among options.
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Re: In the seventh century B.C., the Roman alphabet was [#permalink]

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15 Jul 2017, 02:43
I have a question. The time sequel is clear "1 century earlier", so past tense can be used? Here, there is no past tense among options.
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Re: In the seventh century B.C., the Roman alphabet was [#permalink]

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17 Jul 2017, 12:06
chesstitans wrote:
I have a question. The time sequel is clear "1 century earlier", so past tense can be used? Here, there is no past tense among options.

In general, you'll want the verb tenses to reflect the timeline of the actions in the sentence. And in this case, notice that there IS simple past tense in the non-underlined portion of the sentence: "the Roman alphabet was adapted from the Etruscan alphabet."

The other actions in the sentence all happened even earlier than that -- so it's a whole lot clearer if those other actions are in past perfect tense, as others here have suggested.
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Re: In the seventh century B.C., the Roman alphabet was [#permalink]

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31 Jul 2017, 14:06
1
Sequence of Events

1. In the past, something happened ===========================> Simple Past Tense =====> "-ed" form of the verb

2. Before the above event, something had happened ==============> Past Perfect Tense =====> "had" + been + "-ed" form of the verb

3. Again, before the above event, something had happened ==========> Past perfect Tense =====> "had" + been + "-ed" form of the verb

As per the above sequencing logic, option A is correct.
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Re: In the seventh century B.C., the Roman alphabet was [#permalink]

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11 Sep 2017, 10:47
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If this question is from OG sources, then it might appear someday, even if it has not appeared so far; maybe this is GMAT's way of evaluating responses by floating the questions in the OG. One day it might help posterity.
With reference to the use of past perfect, the takeaway is that GMAT couldn't care less about it, because in the very prior part it has accepted the use of past perfect without underlining, in spite of the use of the word 'previous" to pinpoint a deeper past.
It will be worthwhile to consider this topic ignoring the past perfect aspect, in which case, A is acceptable.
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Re: In the seventh century B.C., the Roman alphabet was [#permalink]

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11 Sep 2017, 21:09
souvik101990 wrote:
In the seventh century B.C., the Roman alphabet was adapted from the Etruscan alphabet, which in turn had been adapted in the previous century from a western Greek alphabet, which itself had been adapted earlier in the same century from the Phoenician alphabet.

D. having been earlier adapted itself
E. earlier itself having been adapted

The first thing that strike me first was the clause western alphabet is essential modifier .
So we need relative pronoun to refer to the noun it is modifying.
Only A makes sense
B, C , D are out they suggest that the alphabet itself evolved .
E is wrong because of earlier and wrong usage of present perfect continuous tense.
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In the seventh century B.C., the Roman alphabet was [#permalink]

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04 Apr 2018, 03:46
I used too much of mind to eliminate option A

My thought process was as we are already using "had", so timeline is already defined therefore use of "earlier" is redundant.

Was I completely wrong folks ? and what is wrong with option "C".

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Re: In the seventh century B.C., the Roman alphabet was [#permalink]

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12 Jun 2018, 22:00
B to E, can be eliminated, as the language cannot adapt itself.
and having etc, sounds outright stupid.
Re: In the seventh century B.C., the Roman alphabet was   [#permalink] 12 Jun 2018, 22:00
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