Hello Everyone!

While there is already some great discussion on this question, let's take a look at it to determine how to answer this question as quickly as possible. That way, you can get to the harder GMAT questions more easily! Before we dive in, here is the original question, with the major differences between each option highlighted in orange:

In the seventh century B.C., the Roman alphabet was adapted from the Etruscan alphabet, which in turn had been adapted in the previous century from a western Greek alphabet, which itself had been adapted earlier in the same century from the Phoenician alphabet.

(A) which itself had been adapted earlier
(B) adapting itself earlier
(C) itself being adapted earlier
(D) having been earlier adapted itself
(E) earlier itself having been adapted

After a quick glance over the options, the only major difference we see is the verbs, so let's focus on that!

To determine which verb tense we need to use, we first need to figure out the order in which these events happened. Since they all happened in the past, we will need to use a combination of past tense and past perfect tense. Here is how the events in this sentence work in a timeline:

Greek alphabet was adapted from Phoenician alphabet --> Etruscan alphabet was adapted from Greek alphabet --> Roman alphabet was adapted from Etruscan alphabet

The event that happens in the past gets plain ol' past tense, which we see in the original sentence (...the Roman alphabet was adapted from...). This means any event that occurs further in the past requires past perfect tense!

Let's see which options use the correct past perfect tense to show the proper order of events:

(A) which itself had been adapted earlier --> GOOD
(This uses past perfect tense to show that the event happened before another past event, so we'll keep this for later!)

(B) adapting itself earlier --> BAD
(This doesn't work because it turns the phrase "adapting itself earlier" into a modifier for Etruscan alphabet. It also suggests that the alphabet adapted itself, which doesn't make logical sense. An alphabet isn't a person, so it can't change by itself!)

(C) itself being adapted earlier --> BAD
(This also doesn't work because it also suggests that the alphabet adapted itself. It also uses past tense, and we need past perfect tense for it to work.)

(D) having been earlier adapted itself --> BAD
(This option is written using past tense, and it's in passive voice. We're looking for past perfect tense here, so this doesn't work.)

(E) earlier itself having been adapted --> BAD
(This option uses past tense, which isn't what we're looking for. We want past perfect tense instead.)

There you have it - option A is the only one that uses past perfect to show the order of events correctly!


Don't study for the GMAT. Train for it.
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Dear Friends,

Here is a detailed explanation to this question-

Meaning is crucial to solving this problem:
Understanding the intended meaning is key to solving this question; the intended core meaning of this sentence is that the Roman alphabet was adapted from the Etruscan alphabet; the Etruscan alphabet had been adapted in the 6th century from a western Greek alphabet, and this western Greek alphabet had been adapted earlier in the 6th century from the Phoenician alphabet.

Concepts tested here: Meaning + Verb Forms + Awkwardness/Redundancy

. The introduction of present participle ("verb+ing") after comma generally leads to a cause-effect relationship.
. “being” is only to be used when it is part of a noun phrase or represents the passive continuous verb tense; the use of passive continuous must be justified in the context.
. If a sentence contains multiple past actions, the past perfect tense (marked by the use of the helping verb “had”) is used to refer to all but the most recent action; the simple past tense is used to refer to the most recent action.

A: Correct. This answer choice modifies the noun phrase "a western Greek alphabet" with the phrase "which itself had been adapted"; thus, Option A avoids the meaning error seen in Options B and D, conveying the intended meaning - that the Etruscan alphabet was adapted in the 6th century from a western Greek alphabet, and in a separate action, this western Greek alphabet had been adapted earlier from the Phoenician alphabet. Further, Option A correctly uses the past perfect tense verb "had been adapted" to refer to the earliest of three actions that concluded in the past - the Roman alphabet being adapted from the Etruscan alphabet, the Etruscan alphabet being adapted from a western Greek alphabet, and this western Greek Alphabet being adapted from the Phonecian alphabet. Additionally, Option A is free of any awkwardness or redundancy.

B: This answer choice alters the meaning of the sentence through the phrase "adapting itself earlier"; the use of the "comma + present participle ("verb+ing" - "adapting" in this sentence) illogically implies that the Etruscan alphabet was adapted in the 6th century from a western Greek alphabet because the Etruscan alphabet had adapted itself from the Phonecian alphabet; the intended meaning is that the Etruscan alphabet was adapted in the 6th century from a western Greek alphabet, and in a separate action, this western Greek alphabet had been adapted earlier from the Phoenician alphabet; remember, the introduction of present participle ("verb+ing"- “adapting” in this case) after comma generally leads to a cause-effect relationship.

C: This answer choice incorrectly uses the word "being", leading to awkwardness and redundancy; remember, “being” is only to be used when it is part of a noun phrase or represents the passive continuous verb tense; the use of passive continuous must be justified in the context.

D: This answer choice alters the meaning of the sentence through the phrase "having been earlier adapted itself"; the use of the "comma + present participle ("verb+ing" - "having" in this sentence) illogically implies that the Etruscan alphabet was adapted in the 6th century from a western Greek alphabet because the Etruscan alphabet had been adapted the Phonecian alphabet; the intended meaning is that the Etruscan alphabet was adapted in the 6th century from a western Greek alphabet, and in a separate action, this western Greek alphabet had been adapted earlier from the Phoenician alphabet; remember, the introduction of present participle ("verb+ing"- “adapting” in this case) after comma generally leads to a cause-effect relationship. Further, Option D incorrectly uses the participle construction "having been...adapted" to refer to the earliest of three actions that concluded in the past - the Roman alphabet being adapted from the Etruscan alphabet, the Etruscan alphabet being adapted from a western Greek alphabet, and this western Greek Alphabet being adapted from the Phonecian alphabet; remember, if a sentence contains multiple past actions, the past perfect tense (marked by the use of the helping verb “had”) is used to refer to all but the most recent action; the simple past tense is used to refer to the most recent action. Additionally, Option D uses the passive voice construction "having been earlier adapted", leading to awkwardness and redundancy.

E: This answer choice incorrectly uses the participle construction "having been adapted" to refer to the earliest of three actions that concluded in the past - the Roman alphabet being adapted from the Etruscan alphabet, the Etruscan alphabet being adapted from a western Greek alphabet, and this western Greek Alphabet being adapted from the Phonecian alphabet; remember, if a sentence contains multiple past actions, the past perfect tense (marked by the use of the helping verb “had”) is used to refer to all but the most recent action; the simple past tense is used to refer to the most recent action. Further, Option E uses the passive voice construction "having been adapted", leading to awkwardness and redundancy.

Hence, A is the best answer choice.

To understand the concept of "Past Perfect Tense" on GMAT, you may want to watch the following video (~2 minutes):



To understand the use of "Being" on GMAT, you may want to watch the following video (~2 minutes):



To understand the concept of "Comma + Present Participle for Cause-Effect Relationships" on GMAT, you may want to watch the following video (~3 minutes):



All the best!
Experts' Global Team
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The key to solve is understanding "the sequence of events" and "the verb tenses"

In the seventh century B.C., the Roman alphabet was adapted from the Etruscan alphabet, [event 1]
which in turn had been adapted in the previous century from a western Greek alphabet, [event 2]
which itself had been adapted earlier in the same century from the Phoenician alphabet. [event 3]

From the meaning we can understand that
Sequence: "event 1" happened after "event 2" happened after "event 3"
Tenses: "was" > "had been" > "had been"
Tenses: "past" > "past perfect" > "past perfect"

Since "had been (past perfect)" is used (non-underlined) for event 2, we should use "had been (past perfect)" for event 3.
(though usage of "had been" for event 2 and event 3 are not necessary as the timelines [centuries before/after] are clearly provided)

A. which itself had been adapted earlier
- maintains the correct tense for the correct sequence
B. adapting itself earlier
- "adapting" makes event 3 as modifier to event 2
C. itself being adapted earlier
- missing correct clause connector (which/that/whose/etc). "being adapted" is past tense, we should use only past perfect tense
D. having been earlier adapted itself
- "having" makes event 3 as modifier to event 2
E. earlier itself having been adapted
- missing correct clause connector (which/that/whose/etc). "having been adapted" is past tense, we should use only past perfect tense

Thanks
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In the seventh century B.C., the Roman alphabet was adapted from the Etruscan alphabet, which in turn had been adapted in the previous century from a western Greek alphabet, which itself had been adapted earlier in the same century from the Phoenician alphabet.

A. which itself had been adapted earlier
B. adapting itself earlier
C. itself being adapted earlier
D. having been earlier adapted itself
E. earlier itself having been adapted

Since the adaption event happened way back in the past, there is no place for present or present continuous or present perfect tense.
only A satisfies the criteria of past perfect tense.

there are 2 "had done" and 1 "did"

this is the pattern to learn though gmat will not test us

Hi!
Experts, kindly jump in for the review and analysis please.
chetan4u , egmat, magoosh , daagh
between A & B
I picked B solely avoiding A because A was having WHICH... again refeerring to that alphabet.. and I assumed needed some ING modifier.
Thanks

I hardly expect such grammar structure will appear in real gmat. Fortunately, there is a key word here; that is, "earlier" indicates a past perfect tense. Nevertheless, I have a question. The time sequel is clear "1 century earlier", so past tense can be used? Here, there is no past tense among options.

I have a question. The time sequel is clear "1 century earlier", so past tense can be used? Here, there is no past tense among options.

In general, you'll want the verb tenses to reflect the timeline of the actions in the sentence. And in this case, notice that there IS simple past tense in the non-underlined portion of the sentence: "the Roman alphabet was adapted from the Etruscan alphabet."

The other actions in the sentence all happened even earlier than that -- so it's a whole lot clearer if those other actions are in past perfect tense, as others here have suggested.
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Sequence of Events

1. In the past, something happened ===========================> Simple Past Tense =====> "-ed" form of the verb

2. Before the above event, something had happened ==============> Past Perfect Tense =====> "had" + been + "-ed" form of the verb

3. Again, before the above event, something had happened ==========> Past perfect Tense =====> "had" + been + "-ed" form of the verb

As per the above sequencing logic, option A is correct.
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If this question is from OG sources, then it might appear someday, even if it has not appeared so far; maybe this is GMAT's way of evaluating responses by floating the questions in the OG. One day it might help posterity.
With reference to the use of past perfect, the takeaway is that GMAT couldn't care less about it, because in the very prior part it has accepted the use of past perfect without underlining, in spite of the use of the word 'previous" to pinpoint a deeper past.
It will be worthwhile to consider this topic ignoring the past perfect aspect, in which case, A is acceptable.
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The answer is A
The first thing that strike me first was the clause western alphabet is essential modifier .
So we need relative pronoun to refer to the noun it is modifying.
Only A makes sense
B, C , D are out they suggest that the alphabet itself evolved .
E is wrong because of earlier and wrong usage of present perfect continuous tense.

I used too much of mind to eliminate option A

which itself had been adapted earlier

My thought process was as we are already using "had", so timeline is already defined therefore use of "earlier" is redundant.

Was I completely wrong folks ? and what is wrong with option "C".

GMATNinja sayantanc2k mikemcgarry
egmat

B to E, can be eliminated, as the language cannot adapt itself.
and having etc, sounds outright stupid.
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daagh

Can you please elaborate what's wrong in D and E
I have understand the OA is A
But I was pondering why D and E are wrong.

D. having been earlier adapted itself

- If you want -ing to modify NOUN in the end of the sentence, you set right after NOUN without comma. Otherwise (if you have a comma), the -ing modifies the whole preceding clause or subject+verb. As per this option

Etruscan alphabet, which in turn had been adapted... having been earlier adapted itself. But you need a modifier that would refer to Greek alphabet

E. earlier itself having been adapted

- Again it's adverbal phrase that can modify many, many thing: action(verb) of the clause, subject, object...


So you need some "modest" modifier that would touch Greek alphabet and follow the line of tenses (have to have past perfect in it)
A. which itself had been adapted earlier - makes this job perfectly

The answer choice is A, but I still feel "earlier" in A to be redundant.

i think in option D and E

(correct me if i am wrong,) its not past tense, its perfect continuous tense, and adapted is not verb, it is past participle