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Re: Is the usage of “due to “ correct in the following sentences [#permalink]
aepmk wrote:
Sentence 2 literally doesn’t have verb tense error :). I just created a sentence like that to see if the usage of due to in this context is correct idiomatically

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Yeah I know. I was explaining you with respect to the context of the sentence :)
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Re: Is the usage of “due to “ correct in the following sentences [#permalink]
The sentence is incorrect caused by the use of the expression.

The sentence has verb tense error caused by the use of the expression
Above sentences make sense?

Also for the first question we could ask the sane question- why it is incorrect - because of the use of expression- won’t this also make sense ?

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Re: Is the usage of “due to “ correct in the following sentences [#permalink]
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aepmk wrote:
1. The choice is incorrect due to the use of the expression
2. The choice has verb tense error due to the use of the expression

Are the above 2 sentences corrrect idiomatically?

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Here's how I like to remember the "due to" versus "because of" situation:

The game was cancelled because of rain: correct

The cancellation was due to rain: correct

BUT:

The game was cancelled due to rain: incorrect

The cancellation was because of rain: incorrect

You use "because of" to explain an action - that is, to modify a verb. In my first example, "because of rain" is modifying the verb phrase "was cancelled." It's explaining why the action was cancelled occurred.

You use "due to" to modify a noun. In my second example, "due to rain" is modifying the noun "cancellation".

Now, on to the examples you gave. Your first example is incorrect. "is incorrect" is a verb phrase (by the way, 'incorrect' is an adjective, not a noun.) So, it's similar to "was cancelled." You'd need to use "because of" instead:

"This choice is incorrect because of the use of the expression"

The second example is less clear. I'm not sure whether "due to the use of the expression" is modifying just the noun 'verb tense error', or whether it's modifying the verb phrase 'has (a) verb tense error'. I think it's technically okay, though, since you can read it as modifying just the noun. (You can't do that with the first example, because 'incorrect' isn't a noun, while 'verb tense error' is a noun.)
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Re: Is the usage of “due to “ correct in the following sentences [#permalink]
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