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Mck2023
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Bunuel
Is x^5 > x^4?

Is \(x^5 > x^4\)? --> reduce by x^4: is \(x > 1\)?

(1) x^3 > −x --> \(x(x^2 + 1) > 0\). Since \(x^2 + 1\) is always positive, then the second multiple, x, must also be positive. So, this statement implies that x > 0. Not sufficient.

(2) 1/x < x --> multiply by x^2 (it has to be positive, so we can safely do that): \(x < x^3\) --> \(x(x^2 -1) > 0\) --> \((x + 1)x(x - 1) > 0\) --> \(-1 < x < 0\) or \(x > 1\). Not sufficient.

(1)+(2) Intersection of ranges from (1) and (2) is \(x > 1\). Sufficient.

Answer: C.


For option 2, \(-1 < x < 0\) or \(x > 1\).

isn't this range sufficient for the question to answer? IMO x^5 > x^4 for both the ranges. Or am I missing something here?

Bunuel @sayantanck please shed some light

The inequality x^5 > x^4 doesn't hold true when -1 < x < 0. For instance, when x = -1/2, x^5 becomes negative while x^4 is positive, making x^5 actually smaller than x^4, not larger.

I hope this helps.
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Hi Bunuel,

I have a question.

For the 2nd statement, In this solution when you have an expression such as

1/x < x

When you multiply by x^2 this becomes

x^2/x < x^3

From here when you reach x < x^3 arent you dividing the LHS by x and in that case since we dont know the sign of x shouldnt that be avoided as a step.

It may not have affected the solution in this question but going forward it can impact on another quesiton isnt it ?

Bunuel
Is x^5 > x^4?

Reduce by x^4 to rephrase the question:

Is \(x > 1\)?

(1) x^3 > −x

\(x(x^2 + 1) > 0\). Since \(x^2 + 1\) is always positive, then the second multiple, x, must also be positive. So, this statement implies that x > 0. Not sufficient.

(2) 1/x < x

Multiply by x^2 (it has to be positive, so we can safely do that):

\(x < x^3\);

\(x(x^2 -1) > 0\);

\((x + 1)x(x - 1) > 0\);

\(-1 < x < 0\) or \(x > 1\).

Not sufficient.

(1)+(2) Intersection of ranges from (1) and (2) is \(x > 1\). Sufficient.

Answer: C.
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Hi Bunuel,

I have a question.

For the 2nd statement, In this solution when you have an expression such as

1/x < x

When you multiply by x^2 this becomes

x^2/x < x^3

From here when you reach x < x^3 arent you dividing the LHS by x and in that case since we dont know the sign of x shouldnt that be avoided as a step.

It may not have affected the solution in this question but going forward it can impact on another quesiton isnt it ?


No issue here. We are not dividing by x. We multiply both sides by x^2, which is always positive, so the inequality direction is preserved. The step from x^2/x < x^3 to x < x^3 is just simplification on the left-hand side: x^2/x becomes x. We are not dividing both sides by x.
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