Last visit was: 17 May 2026, 23:43 It is currently 17 May 2026, 23:43
Close
GMAT Club Daily Prep
Thank you for using the timer - this advanced tool can estimate your performance and suggest more practice questions. We have subscribed you to Daily Prep Questions via email.

Customized
for You

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

Track
Your Progress

every week, we’ll send you an estimated GMAT score based on your performance

Practice
Pays

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History
Not interested in getting valuable practice questions and articles delivered to your email? No problem, unsubscribe here.
Close
Request Expert Reply
Confirm Cancel
User avatar
vd
Joined: 29 Aug 2005
Last visit: 09 Sep 2010
Posts: 134
Own Kudos:
Posts: 134
Kudos: 313
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
User avatar
alpha_plus_gamma
Joined: 14 Aug 2007
Last visit: 17 Jun 2010
Posts: 298
Own Kudos:
Concentration: MC, PE, VC
Posts: 298
Kudos: 641
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
User avatar
gmat2ndtime
Joined: 16 Mar 2008
Last visit: 15 Jul 2009
Posts: 50
Own Kudos:
Posts: 50
Kudos: 7
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
User avatar
vd
Joined: 29 Aug 2005
Last visit: 09 Sep 2010
Posts: 134
Own Kudos:
Posts: 134
Kudos: 313
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
alpha_plus_gamma
vdhawan1
Is x+y>z
(1) (x^2+y^2)>z^2
(2) x, y, z are sides of a triangle



statement 1 is clearly not sufficient
from statement 2 it can follow that x+y>z but it can equally follow that z+y>x
hence insufficient

both statements put together also don’t help
so answer should be E on this
However, the OA is different
Want to have u r opinion guys. Can u please tell me where I am wrong on this?

IMHO, it should be B

If its sure that x+y>z , and question is asking the same, why to bother if z+y>x or not?

See my point is that yes surely x+y>z is inferable, but equally infereable is z+y>x , then why not that option
the idea is that this option brings in two different possibilities, and hence the option is insufficent to answer the question.

therefore this statement is insufficent.

so shdnt the answer be E on this

Can some more guys give thier opinion on this

Thanks
User avatar
aaron22197
Joined: 22 May 2007
Last visit: 18 Sep 2008
Posts: 146
Own Kudos:
Posts: 146
Kudos: 821
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
I think all x+y>z has to be true if x,y,z are the sides of the triangle. I agree that y+z>x and z+y>x are also true. But the question stem specifically asks for x+y. Hence B. what's the OA on this?
User avatar
bsd_lover
Joined: 17 May 2007
Last visit: 15 Mar 2020
Posts: 2,432
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 210
Posts: 2,432
Kudos: 1,753
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
You're right
z+y > x and also x+z > y and finally x+y > z if they are three sides of a triangle.

Hence B is sufficient.

vdhawan1

See my point is that yes surely x+y>z is inferable, but equally infereable is z+y>x , then why not that option
the idea is that this option brings in two different possibilities, and hence the option is insufficent to answer the question.

therefore this statement is insufficent.

so shdnt the answer be E on this

Can some more guys give thier opinion on this

Thanks
User avatar
ritula
Joined: 18 May 2008
Last visit: 12 Apr 2011
Posts: 693
Own Kudos:
Posts: 693
Kudos: 3,223
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
The answer is definitely B.
See take it this way.
let the three sides of triangle be x,y and z respectively
x+y>z
x+z>y
y+z>x
All three conditions are true.
We are asked abt 1 of them which ios definitely true. so it should be B only
User avatar
redbeanaddict
Joined: 31 Jul 2006
Last visit: 09 Aug 2009
Posts: 135
Own Kudos:
Posts: 135
Kudos: 428
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
vdhawan1
Is x+y>z
(1) (x^2+y^2)>z^2
(2) x, y, z are sides of a triangle



statement 1 is clearly not sufficient
from statement 2 it can follow that x+y>z but it can equally follow that z+y>x
hence insufficient

both statements put together also don’t help
so answer should be E on this
However, the OA is different
Want to have u r opinion guys. Can u please tell me where I am wrong on this?
Clearly, x+y will always be greater than z
x+z can also be greater than y, and y and z will also always be greater than x
either way, with these 3 facts, we can already answer the question
User avatar
arjtryarjtry
User avatar
Current Student
Joined: 11 May 2008
Last visit: 18 Sep 2010
Posts: 376
Own Kudos:
Concentration: General
Posts: 376
Kudos: 1,357
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
here from option B we can say x+y>z. but there is a difference betn saying
a)x+y>z and
b) only x+y>z
User avatar
x2suresh
Joined: 07 Nov 2007
Last visit: 18 Aug 2012
Posts: 711
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 5
Location: New York
Posts: 711
Kudos: 3,150
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
vdhawan1
Is x+y>z
(1) (x^2+y^2)>z^2
(2) x, y, z are sides of a triangle



statement 1 is clearly not sufficient
from statement 2 it can follow that x+y>z but it can equally follow that z+y>x
hence insufficient

both statements put together also don’t help
so answer should be E on this
However, the OA is different
Want to have u r opinion guys. Can u please tell me where I am wrong on this?

Clear B...

Question Asked.. is x+y>z?... answer is yes.. then B is suffcient..
User avatar
spriya
Joined: 17 Jun 2008
Last visit: 18 Nov 2010
Posts: 615
Own Kudos:
Posts: 615
Kudos: 3,097
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
vdhawan1
Is x+y>z
(1) (x^2+y^2)>z^2
(2) x, y, z are sides of a triangle



statement 1 is clearly not sufficient
from statement 2 it can follow that x+y>z but it can equally follow that z+y>x
hence insufficient

both statements put together also don’t help
so answer should be E on this
However, the OA is different
Want to have u r opinion guys. Can u please tell me where I am wrong on this?

IMO B
(1) is in insuffi ->
x^2+y^2 = (x+y)^2-2xy
(x+y)^2-2xy-z^2>0 => x,y signs and values matter here in boh the cases when z<x+y or z>x+y

(2) is sufficient since properties of triangle

sum of two sides is greater than the third side
IMO B
User avatar
nmohindru
Joined: 06 Apr 2008
Last visit: 06 Jul 2013
Posts: 156
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 1
Posts: 156
Kudos: 488
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
vdhawan1
Is x+y>z
(1) (x^2+y^2)>z^2
(2) x, y, z are sides of a triangle



statement 1 is clearly not sufficient
from statement 2 it can follow that x+y>z but it can equally follow that z+y>x
hence insufficient

both statements put together also don’t help
so answer should be E on this
However, the OA is different
Want to have u r opinion guys. Can u please tell me where I am wrong on this?

IMO B)

Statement 1) conflicts when you change from +ve to -ve

Statement 2) is perfect



Archived Topic
Hi there,
This topic has been closed and archived due to inactivity or violation of community quality standards. No more replies are possible here.
Where to now? Join ongoing discussions on thousands of quality questions in our Data Sufficiency (DS) Forum
Still interested in this question? Check out the "Best Topics" block above for a better discussion on this exact question, as well as several more related questions.
Thank you for understanding, and happy exploring!
Moderators:
Math Expert
110570 posts
GMAT Tutor
1922 posts